1. Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given the
Lists :
List-I
(Town)
A. Betul
B. Jagdalpur
C. Jabalpur
D. Ujjain
List II
(River nearer to lists)
1. Indravati
2. Narmada
3. Shipra
4. Tapti
Codes :
A B C D
a. 1 4 2 3
b. 4 1 2 3
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 1 4 3 2
2. Consider the following statements:
1. The national wide Scheme of the
National Child Labour Projects
(NCLP) is run by the Union Ministry
of Social Justice and Empowerment.
2. Gurupadswamy Committee dealt with
the issues of child labour
Which of the statement given above is/ are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the lists:
List-I ( Writer)
A. V S Naipaul
B. Salman Rushdie
C. Paul Scott
D. J G Farrell
List-II ( Book )
1. The Siege of Krishnapur
2. In a free State
3. Midnight children
4. Staying on
Codes:
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 4 1 2 3
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 4 3 2 1
4. The Song ‘Amar Sonar Bangla’ written during the Swadeshi Movement of India
inspired the Liberation Struggle of
Bangladesh and was adopted as the
National Anthem of Bangladesh.
Who wrote this song?
a. Rajni Kanta Sen
b. Dwijendralal Ray
c. Mukunda Das
d. Rabindra Nath tagore
5. Which of the following types is used by
computed tomography employed for
visualization of the internal structure of
human body ?
a. X Ray
b. South waves
c. Magnetic resonance
d. Radioisotopes
6. Consider the following statement in
respect of financial emergency under the
article 360 of the constitution of India
1. A proclamation of financial emergency
issued shall cease to operate at the
expiration of two months, unless
before the expiration of that period it
has been approved by the resolution of
both house of Parliament.
2. If any proclamation of financial
emergency is in operation, it is
competent for president of India to
issue directions for the reduction of
salaries and allowances of all or any
class of persons serving in connection
with the affair of the union but
excluding the judges of the Supreme
Court and the high courts.
Which of the statements given above is /
are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
7. Which of the constitution Amendment
Acts seeks that the size of the Council of
Ministers at the center and in a state must
not exceed 15 percent of the total numbers
in the Lok Sabha and the total number of
members of the legislative Assembly of
that state , respectively ?
a. 91st
b. 93rd
c. 95th
d. 97th
8. Consider the following statements:
1. The Series of International Paper Size
is based on A0 size whose area is 0.5
m2 ( approx)
2. The area of A4 size paper is 1/8th of
the A0 size paper.
Which of the following given above is/are
correct ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
9. Consider the following statements :
1. The chairman of the committee on
public Accounts is appointed by the
speaker of the Lok Sabha.
2. The committee on Public Accounts
Comprise Members of the Lok Sabha ,
Members of Rajya Sabha, and a few
eminent persons of the industry and
Trade.
Which of the statements given above/are
correct.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
10. Consider the following statements :
1. In India, Red Panda is naturally found
in the western Himalayan only.
2. In India , Slow Loris Lives in the dense
forest of the North East.
Which of the following statements given
above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
11. The First factory Act restricting the
working hours of women and children and
authorizing local governments to make
necessary rules was adopted during whose
time?
a. Lord Lytton
b. Lord Bentinck
c. Lord Ripon
d. Lord canning
12. What is the Galileo project which has been
in news recently ?
a. An intercountry programme of missile
shield developed by United State of
America.
b. A Project developed by India with
Assistance from Canada.
c. An Environmental Protection being
developed by Japan.
d. A Multi-satellite navigation project
being developed by the European
Union.
13. Near the end of the year 2006, which one
of the following countries was suspended
from the commonwealth after a military
coup?
a. Kenya
b. Myanmar
c. Fiji
d. Tanjania
14. Shahgarh area in Jaisalmer district of
Rajasthan was in news in the year 2006
because of which one of the following ?
a. Finding high quality gas reserves
b. Finding uranium deposit
c. Finding zinc deposit
d. Installation of wind power units
15. Which on the following is the correct
sequence in order of decreasing length of
the three structural parts given below of
small intestine in the human body?
a. Jejunum - Duodenum – ileum
b. ileum – Duodenum – Jejunum
c. jejunum – Ileum – Duodenum
d. ileum – Jejunum – Duodenum
16. Who among the following wrote the book
Bahubivah?
a. Raja Rammohan Roy
b. Ishwar Chandra Vidya Sagar
c. Pandita Rambai
d. Rabindranath Tagore
17. In the Human Body which on the
following hormones regulates blood
calcium and Phosphate?
a. Glucagon
b. Growth Hormone
c. Parathyroid Hormone
d. Thyroxin
18. How do most insects respire
a. Through skin
b. Through gills
c. by Lungs
d. By Tracheal system
19. In Human Being, normally in which one of
the following parts, does the sperm
fertilize the ovum ?
a. Cervix
b. Fallopian Tube
c. Lower Part of Uterus
d. Upper Part of Uterus
20. Which one of the following parts of
Human brain is regulating center for
swallowing and vomiting?
a. Cerebellum
b. Cerebrum
c. Medulla Oblongata
d. Pons
21. Production of which one of the following
is a function of the Liver.
a. Lipase
b. Urea
c. Mucus
d. Hydrochloric acid
22. Which of the following countries recently
upgraded its defense agency to a full
defense ministery ?
a. Italy
b. Japan
c. Switzerland
d. Poland
23. Who among the following was chosen as
the FIFA world player of the year for the
year 2006?
a. Zinedine Zidane
b. Fabio Cannavaro
c. Ronaldinho
d. Thierry Henry
24. Which of the following is not a digestive
enzyme in the Human system?
a. Trypsin
b. Gastrin
c. Ptyalin
d. Pepsin
25. Which of the following light types of light
are strongly absorbed by plants :
a. Violet and Orange
b. Blue and Red
c. Indigo and Yellow
d. Yellow and Violet
26. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the lists:
List-I
(Person)
A. John C Mather
B. Michael Griffin
C. Paul G Allen
D. Piers Sellers
List-II
(Known as)
1. Co-founder of Microsoft
2. Space walker
3. Administrator of NASA
4. Nobel prize winner , 2006 in Physics
Codes:
A B C D
a. 4 1 3 2
b. 2 3 1 4
c. 4 3 1 2
d. 2 1 3 4
27. Which one of the following pairs is not
correctly matched?
a. Cosmic Background: Satellite
Programme Explorer ( COBE )
b. Falcon : Under sea cable system
c. Discovery : Space shuttle
d. Atlantis : Space station
28. Consider the following statements:
4 of 15
1. China has the observer’s status at the
South Asean for Regional corporation.
2. India has the observer’s status at the
Shanghai corporation Organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 or 2
29. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the lists:
List-I
(Eminent Person)
A. Bhanu Bharti
B. Mike Pandey
C. Mohd. Zahur Khayyam
D. Vinda Karandikar
List-II
(Known as)
1. Music composer
2. Poet and Literature
3. Theatre Director
4. Wildlife Film maker
Code:
A B C D
a. 1 4 3 2
b. 3 2 1 4
c. 1 2 3 4
d. 3 4 12
30. Three identical vessels A , B and C are
filled with water , mercury and Kerosene
respectively up to an equal height. The
three vessels are provided with identical
taps at the bottom of the vessels. If the
three taps opened simultaneously, then
which vessel is emptied first?
a. Vessel B
b. All the vessels A , B and C will be
emptied simultaneously
c. Vessel A
d. Vessel C
31. In the latter half of the year 2006, in which
one of the following countries did a
military coup take place?
a. Cambodia
b. Laos
c. Thailand
d. Vietnam
32. Match List-I with List II and select the
correct answer using the code given the
Lists :
List-I
(Alumni Company)
A. BALCO
B. HINDALCO
C. Indian Alumni Company
D. NALCO
List II
(Location)
1. Hirakunda
2. Korba
3. Koraput
4. Renukoot
Codes :
A B C D
a. 3 1 4 2
b. 2 4 1 3
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 2 1 4 3
33. Which of the following is located in the
Bastar region ?
a. Bandhvagarh National Park
b. Dundeli Sanchary
c. Rajaji National Park
d. Indravati National Park
34. Which of the following National
Highways passes through Maharastra ,
Chattisgarh and Orissa.
a. NH-4
b. NH-5
c. NH-6
d. NH-7
35. In the Human Body, which structure is the
appendix attached to ?
a. The large intestine
b. The Small intestine
c. the gall Bladder
d. The Stomach
36. Consider the following statements :
1. Balaghat is known for its diamond
mines.
2. Majhgawan is known for its
manganese deposits.
Which of the following statements given
above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
5 of 15
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
37. Which one of the following States of India
has the lowest density of population?
a. Himanchal Pradesh
b. Meghalaya
c. Arunachal Pradesh
d. Sikkim
38. Match List-I with List II and select the
correct answer using the code given the
Lists :
List-I
(City)
A. Bankong
B. Phnom-Penh
C. Hanoi
D. Yangon
List II
(River)
1. Irrawaddy
2. Mekong
3. Menam ( Chao Phraya )
4. Red River
Codes :
A B C D
a. 3 2 4 1
b. 4 1 3 2
c. 3 1 4 2
d. 4 2 3 1
39. Consider the following statements:
1. Either of the two belts over the ocean
at about 300 to 350 N and S Latitudes is
known as Horse Latitude.
2. Horse Latitude are low pressure Belt.
Which of the following statements given
above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2.
40. Which one among the following rivers is
the longest ?
a. Amazon
b. Amur
c. Congo
d. Lena
41. Which one among of the flowing rivers
originates at Amarkantak ?
a. Damodar
b. Mahanadi
c. Narmada
d. Tapi
42. Which one among the following major
cities is most eastwards located ?
a. Hyderabad
b. Bhopal
c. Lucknow
d. Benguluru (Bangalore)
43. Dalbergia Species is associated with which
one of the following :
a. Cashew nut
b. Coffee
c. Tea
d. Rosewood
44. Out of the Southern States : Andhra
Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil
Nadu, which shares boundaries with
maximum number of Indian state ?
a. Andhra Pradesh only
b. Karnataka Only
c. Each of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
d. Each of Tamil Nadu and Kerala
45. Through which one of the following
Straits, does a tunnel connect the united
Kingdom and France:
a. Davis Strait
b. Denmark Strait
c. Strait of Dover
d. Strait of Gibraltar
46. Consider the following statements:
1. The annul range of temperature is
greater in the Pacific Ocean than that
in the Atlantic Ocean.
2. The Annual range of temperature is
greater in the Northern Hemisphere
than that in the Southern Hemi sphere.
Which of the following statements given
above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
47. The Largest coral reef in the world is
found near the coast of which one of the
following countries?
6 of 15
a. Australia
b. Cuba
c. Ghana
d. Philippines
48. In which state is the Guru Shikhar Peak
located :
a. Rajasthan
b. Gujarat
c. Madhya Pradesh
d. Maharastra
49. Who wrote the book- ‘ The story of the
integration of Indian State’?
a. B N Rau
b. C Rajagopalchari
c. Krishna Menon
d. V P Menon
50. Which one of the Following aroused a
wave of popular indignation that led to the
massacre by the British at Jaliawala Bagh?
a. The Arm Act
b. The Public Safety Act
c. The Rowlatt Act
d. The Vernacular Press Act
51. Who is the Speaker of the First Lok
Sabha?
a. Hukam Singh
b. G V Mavalankar
c. K M Munshi
d. U N Dhebar
52. At which one of the following places did
mahatma Gandhi first start his satyagraha
in India?
a. Ahemdabad
b. Bardoli
c. Champaran
d. Kheda
53. Who Among the following started the
newspaper Shome Prakash?
a. Dayanand Saraswati
b. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
c. Raja Rammohan Roy
d. Surendranath Banerjee
54. The ruler of which on of the following
states was removed from power by the
British on the pretext of misgovernance.
a. Awadh
b. Jhansi
c. Nagpur
d. Satara
55. Who Among the following Europeans
were the last to come to pre independence
India Traders ?
a. Dutch
b. English
c. French
d. Portuguese
56. Consider the following statement :
1. Robert Clive was the first Governor
General of Bengal
2. William Bentic was the first Governor
general of India
Which of the statement given above is /
are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 or 2
57. Which one of the Following was the first
fort Constructed by the British in India ?
a. Fort William
b. Fort St. George
c. Fort St. David
d. Fort St. Angelo
58. Consider the following statements:
1. Jawahar Nehru was in his fourth Term
as the Prime minister of India at the
time of his death.
2. Jawahar Nehru represented Rae
Bareilly constituency as a member of
parliament.
3. The First non congress Prime minister
of India assumed the office in the year
1977.
Which of the following statements given
above is are correct.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 Only
c. 1 only
d. 1 and 3
59. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the lists:
List-I
(Company)
A. Chevron
B. AT & T
C. AMD
D. Enercon GmbH
7 of 15
List-II
( Major Area/product)
1. Wind Energy
2. Oil
3. Telephone, Internet
4. Micro-processor
Codes:
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 2 3 4 1
d. 4 1 2 3
60. Which one of the following pairs is not
correctly matched ?
a. Williams Dickson : Motion Picture
Film
b. Charles Babbage : Programmable
Computer
c. Nicholas Stern : Construction
Technology
d. Brian Greene : String Theory
61. Which one of the following is called
Philosopher’s wool ?
a. Zinc Bromide
b. Zinc Nitrate
c. Zinc Oxide
d. Zinc Choloride
62. Which one of the following does not
contain silver ?
a. Horn Silver
b. German Silver
c. Ruby Silver
d. Lunar Caustic
63. Which one of the following types of glass
can cut off ultraviolet rays ?
a. Soda Glass
b. Pyrex Glass
c. Jena Glass
d. Crookes Glass
64. Which one of the following non metal is
not a poor conductor of electricity?
a. Sulphur
b. Selenium
c. Bromide
d. Phosphorus
65. Which one of the following is another
name of RDX ?
a. Cyanohydrin
b. Dextran
c. Cyclohexane
d. Cyclonite
66. Where are the headquarters of the
Organization of Islamic Conference (OIC)
located?
a. Dubai
b. Jeddah
c. Islamabad
d. Ankara
67. Which of the following cities has been the
venue of the Asean Games for the
maximum number of times from the years
1951 to the year 2006 ?
a. Delhi
b. Bangkok
c. Tokyo
d. Beijing
68. Where is Copacabana Beach located?
a. Buenos Aires
b. Hawaiian Islands
c. Rio de Janeiro
d. Valletta
69. Who was Leander Paes’s partner when he
won Double Final in the US open Tennis
Tournament?
a. Max Mirnyi
b. Martin Damm
c. Bob Bryan
d. Mike Brayan
70. Who among the following is considered as
the inventor of the World Wide Web
(WWW) ?
a. Edward Kasner
b. Bill Gates
c. Tim Berner Lee
d. Vinod Bham
71. Three dice (each having six faces with
each face having one number from 1 to 6
are rolled. What is the number of possible
outcomes such that at least one dice shows
the number 2 ?
a. 36
b. 81
c. 91
d. 116
72. All six letters of the name SACHIN are
arranged to form different words without
repeating any letter in any one word. The
words so formed are then arranged as a
8 of 15
dictionary . what will be the position of the
word SACHIN in that sequence ?
a. 436
b. 590
c. 601
d. 751
73. Five balls of different colours are to be
placed in the three different boxes such
that any ox contains at least one ball. What
is the maximum number of different ways
in which this can be done?
a. 90
b. 120
c. 150
d. 180
74. Amit has five friends: 3 Girls and 2 boys .
Amit’s wife is also has five friends: 3 boys
and 2 girls. In How many maximum
number of different ways can they invite 2
boys and two girls such that two of them
are Amit’s friends and two are his wife’s?
a. 24
b. 38
c. 46
d. 58
75.
(Each small circle represent a different
station)
What is the maximum number of different
paths that exist between station A and the
station B.
a. 28
b. 31
c. 33
d. 35
76. Which one of the following Pairs is not
correctly matched?
a. T S Krishnamurthy : Former Chief
Election Commissioner of India
b. K C pant : Chairman , Tenth Finance
Commissioner of India
c. A M Khusro : Former Chairman,
Union Public Service Commission
d. R C Lahoti : Former Chief Justice of
India
77. Consider the Following Statements:
1. The Mode of removal of a judge of a
high court in India is same as that of
removal of a judge of the Supreme
Court.
2. After retirement from the office, a
permanent Judge of a High Court can
not plead or act in any Court or before
any authority in India.
Which of the statements given above is /
are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
78. Which one of the following is the correct
Chronological order of the Formation of
the following as full states of Indian
Union?
a. Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh –
Nagaland – Haryana
b. Nagaland – Haryana – Sikkim –
Arunachal Pradesh
c. Sikkim – Haryana – Nagaland-
Arunachal Pradesh
d. Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh –
Sikkim – Haryana
79. Tarapur committee was associated with
which one of the following?
a. Special Economic Zone
b. Fuller capital Account convertibility
c. Foreign exchange reserves
d. Effect of oil prices on the Indian
Economy
80. Who among of the following served as the
chief economist of the International
Monetary Fund?
a. Ashok Lahiri
b. Sumantra Ghosal
c. Saumitra Chaudhuri
d. Raghuram Rajan
81. Where are Shevarory Hills located ?
a. Andhra Pradesh
b. Karnataka
c. Kerala
d. Tamil Nadu
82. Participatory Notes ( PNs) are associated
with which one the following ?
a. consolidate fund of India
b. Foreign Institutional Investors
9 of 15
c. United Nations Development
Programme
d. Kyoto protocol.
83. The Pulitzer Prize is associated with which
one of the following?
a. Environmental Protection
b. Olympic Games
c. Journalism
d. Civil Aviation
84. For which one of the following books did
Kiran Desai win the Man Boker Prize
2006.
a. The Secret River
b. In the country of Men
c. The inheritance of Loss
d. Mother’s Milk
85. Where was the first conference of the
Pugwash conference on Science and
World Affair held in the year 1957?
a. Minnowbrrok (USA )
b. Rhode Island ( USA )
c. Nova Scotia (Canada )
d. Nagasaki ( Japan )
86. Consider the following statements:
1. The repo rate is the rate which other
banks borrow from reserve Bank of
India.
2. A Value of 1 for Gini Coefficient in a
country implies that there is perfectly
equal income for every one in its
populations.
Which of the following statements given
above is / are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 or 2
d. Neither 1 or 2
87. MCA -21 is a major initiate taken up by
the Government of India in which one of
the following areas?
a. Foreign Direct investment in India
b. Attracting international tourism
c. e-governance
d. Modernization of Airports
88. How is Gabriel Garcia well known as
a. Known as research in agriculture
b. A renowned football coach
c. A great writer who won the noble prize
for Literature
d. Known for research in railway
engineering
89. Robert Webster is known for his work
associated with which one of the
following?
a. Cardiology
b. Influenza Virus
c. HIV/AIDS
d. Alzheimer
90. Wangari Maathai, the noble Prize winner
from Kenya is known for her contribution
to which one of the following ?
a. Journalism
b. International economics
c. Sustainable development
d. Child Development
91.
In the figure shown above , what is the
maximum number of different way in
which 8 identical balls can be placed In
small triangle 1 , 2 , 3 and 4 such that each
triangle contain at least one ball ?
a. 32
b. 35
c. 44
d. 56
92. 6 equidistance vertical lines are drawn on a
board. 6 equidistance horizontal lines are
also drawn on the board cutting the 6
vertical lines and the distance between any
two consecutive horizontal lines is equal to
that between any two consecutive vertical
lines. What is the maximum number of
square thus formed?
a. 37
b. 55
c. 126
d. 225
93. Each of the 3 persons is to be given some
identical items such that product of the
numbers of items received by each of the
three persons is equal to 30. In How many
maximum different ways can this
distribution be done.
a. 21
b. 24
10 of 15
c. 27
d. 33
94. Six faces of a cube are numbered from 1 to
6, each face carrying one different number,
further
1. The Face 2 is opposite to the face 6
2. The Face 1 is opposite to the face 5
3. The Face 3 is between the face 1 and
face 5
4. The face 4 is adjacent to the Face 2
Which one of the following is correct?
a. The face 2 is adjacent to the Face 3
b. The Face 6 is between the face 2 and
the face 4
c. The Face 1 is between the face 5 and
the face 6
d. None of the above
95. Groups each containing 3 boys are to be
formed out of 5 boys – A , B , C , D and E
such that no one group contains both C
and D together. What is the maximum
number of different groups?
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
96.
In how many maximum different ways can
3 identical balls be placed in 12 squares
(each ball be places in the exact center of
the squares) shown in the figure given
above such that they do not lie along the
same straight line ?
a. 144
b. 200
c. 204
d. 216
97. Consider the following statements :
1. North Atlantic Co-operation Council
(NACC) is the name of the new
organization which has replaced the
North Atlantic Treaty Organization
(NATO).
2. The United States of America and the
United Kingdom became the members
of the NATO when it was formed in
the year 1949.
Which of the following given above is/are
correct ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
98. Which one of the following is the correct
sequence in the decreasing order of
contribution of different sectors to the
Gross domestic product of India?
a. Service – Industry – Agriculture
b. Service – Agriculture – Industry
c. Industry – service – Agriculture
d. Industry – Agriculture – Service
99. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the lists:
List-I
(Person)
A. Vishwapati Trivedi
B. Tulsi R Tanti
C. Shashi Ruia
D. S Bikachandani
List-II
(Company)
1. Essar Group
2. Info Edge India (which runs
naukri.com)
3. Indian Airline
4. Suzon Energy
Codes:
A B C D
a. 2 4 1 3
b. 3 1 4 2
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 3 4 1 2
100. Which one of the following was associated
with Acharya Vinoba Bhave,s Bhoodan
Movement at the beginning of the
movement?
a. Udayagiri
b. Rapur
c. Pochampalli
d. Venkatagiri
101. Who among of the following bowlers have
taken more than 500 wickets in Test
Crickets?
11 of 15
1. Wasim Akram
2. Richard Hadlee
3. Glen McGrath
4. Courtney Walse
Select the correct answer using the code
given below :
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 3 and 4 only
c. 1, 2, 3 only
d. 1, 2, 3, 4
102. NASA’s Deep impact space mission was
employed to take detailed pictures of
which comet nucleus?
a. Halley’s comet
b. Hale-Bopp
c. Hyakutake
d. Temple 1
103. The Stilwell Road , built in 1940s , which
has recently in news connects with the
following ?
a. Agartala in India and Yangon in
Myanmar via Bangladesh.
b. Ledo in India and Kunming in China
via Myanmar.
c. Kalimpong in India and Lhasa in Tibat
via Bhutan
d. Imphal in India and Bangkok in
Thailand via Myanmar .
104. With the reference to the international
meeting held in the year 2006, Which of
the following Pairs is/are correctly
matched ?
1. NAM Summit : Havana
2. APEC Meeting : Bangkok
3. EU India Summit : Helsinki
4. UN Climate change conference :
Geneva
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4
105. Who among the following wrote the Book
– Ayodhya : 6 December 1992 ?
a. Chandra shekar
b. P V Narasimha Rao
c. Jasvant Singh
d. Arun Shorie
106. With reference to steel industry in India in
the recent times, considering the following
statements :
1. Vizag Steel Plant (RINL) has been
declared Mini Ratna.
2. Merger of IISCO with SAIL has been
completed.
Which of the statement given above is/ are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
107. Which one of the following is not a
member of Shanghai Cooperation
Organization?
a. Russia
b. Kazakhistan
c. Ukrain
d. Uzbekistan
108. Which of the following countries signed
the Tshwane Declaration in October,
2006?
a. China and South Africa
b. India and South Africa
c. South Africa & Botswana
d. Saudi Arabia and South Africa
109. Recently , the European Union and Other
Six Countries including India Signed the
International Thermonuclear Experimental
Reactor (ITER) Project . Which one of the
Following was not a signatory to it?
a. Canada
b. China
c. Japan
d. USA
110. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the lists:
List-I
(Person)
A. Bhajan Sopori
B. Birju maharaj
C. Priyadarshini Govind
D. T V Gopalkrishanan
List-II
(Known as )
1. Bharatnatyam Dancer
2. Exponent of Santoor
3. Mridangam Maestro
4. Kathak Dancer
Codes:
12 of 15
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 3 1 4 2
c. 2 4 1 3
d. 3 4 1 2
111. Which one of the following Himalayan
Passes was reopened around in the middle
of the year 2006 to facilitate trade between
India and China?
a. Chang La
b. Jara La
c. Nathu La
d. Shipki La
112. How is Steve Fossett known as ?
a. As a crocodile Hunter
b. For Completing the longest non stop
flight around the globe
c. For Swimming across Atlantic Ocean
d. For climbing to Mt. Everest without
any co climber
113. Basel II relates to which one of the
following?
a. International standard for safety in
civil aviation
b. Measure against cyber crimes
c. Measure against drug abuse by sport
person
d. International Standards for measuring
the adequacy of Bank’s capital.
114. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the lists:
List-I
(Person)
A. Nancy Pelosi
B. Margret Chan
C. Paskal Lamy
D. Steve Ballmer
List-II
(Position/Organization)
1. WTO
2. Speaker, US House of representatives
3. WHO
4. Microsoft
Codes:
A B C D
a. 2 1 3 4
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 2 3 1 4
d. 4 1 3 2
115. In which of the following cities is the
Global Automotive research center being
set up ?
a. Chennai
b. Hyderabad
c. Pune
d. Gurgaon
116. Consider the following statements :
1. Republic won majority in the US
House of representative Election hold
in the year 2006.
2. Republican Bobby Jindal , won a seat
in US House of representatives for the
second time.
Which of the following given above is/are
correct ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
117. What is the broad area in which the noble
Prize winners for the year 2006 in
Physiology or Medicine, worked to get
prize?
a. Prevention of weakening due to aging
b. Flow of genetic information
c. Immunology and disease resistance
d. Adult stem cell research
118. In which one of the following districts ,
have been reserves of diamond-bearing
kimberlite been discovered in the recent
past.
a. Hoshangabad
b. Raipur
c. Sambalpur
d. Warangal
119. Which one of the following countries is
planning to construct a rival to the Panama
Canal to link the Pacific and Atlantic
Oceans?
a. Colombia
b. Costa Rica
c. Guatemala
d. Nicaragua
120. Consider the following statements :
1. In the Year 2006, India Successfully
tested a full fledged cryogenic stage in
rocketry.
2. After USA, Russia and China , India is
the only country to have acquired the
capability for use of cryogenic stage in
rocketry.
13 of 15
Which of the following given above is/are
correct ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
121. Consider the following statements:
1. In the November 2006, DRDO
successfully conducted the interception
test using Prithvi II missile.
2. Prithvi II is a surface to surface missile
and can be deployed to guard the
metros against air attack .
Which of the following statements given
above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
122. What was the purpose of the Operation
Sukoon launched by Government of India?
a. Helping Indonesia in its efforts to
rehabilitate the victims of earthquake
in that country.
b. Evacuation the India national from
Lebanon during the conflict in the
middle east.
c. Assisting United Nations in its to help
the Civil war victims in the Darfur
region of North Africa.
d. Providing a relief package to farmers
after a spate of suicides by other
farmers in Andhra Pradesh.
123. Which one of the following is also known
as Top Slip ?
a. Simlipal National Park
b. Periyar Wildlife Sanchary
c. Manjira Wildlife Sanchary
d. Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and
National Park
124. Who among of the following is Chile’s
first women president ?
a. D Ortega
b. M Bachelet
c. E Morales
d. A Garcia
125. Consider the following statements :
1. The Judges (Inquiry) Bill 2006
Contemplates to establish a judicial
council which will receive complaints
against Judges of the Supreme Court
including the chief Justice of India,
High court Chief Justice and judges.
2. Under the protection of Women from
Domestic Violence Act, 2005, a
woman can file a petition before a 1st
class Judicial Magistrate.
Which of the statement given above is/ are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
126. Where is the famous Vijaya Vitala temple
having its 56 carved pillars emitting
musical noted located?
a. Belur
b. Bhadrachalam
c. Hampi
d. Srirangam
127. The National Housing Bank was set up in
India as a wholly – owned subsidiary of
which one of the following?
a. Sate Bank of India
b. Reserve Bank of India
c. ICICI Bank
d. Life insurance Corporation of India
128. If all the numbers from 501 to 700 are
written, what is the total number of times
does the digit 6 appear?
a. 138
b. 139
c. 140
d. 141
129. Parimarajan Negi excelled in which one of
the following games ?
a. Billiards
b. Swimming
c. Chess
d. Weightlifting
130. A and B can complete work together in 5
Days. If A works at twice his speed and B
at half of his speed, this work can be
finished in 4 days. How many days would
it take for A alone to complete the Job.
a. 10
b. 12
c. 15
d. 18
131. Amit starts from a point A and walks to
another point B and then returns from B to
A by his car and thus takes a total time of
6 hours and 45 minutes. If he had driven
14 of 15
both ways in his car , he would have taken
2 hours less. How long would it take for
him to walk both ways?
a. 7 hours 45 minutes
b. 8 Hours 45 minutes
c. 8 hours 30 minutes
d. 8 hours 45 minutes
132. A person has to completely put each three
liquids , 403 liters of petrol , 465 liters of
diesel and 496 liters of mobile oil in
bottles of equal size without mixing any
the above three types of liquids such that
each bottle is completely filled.
What is the least possible number of
bottles required?
a. 34
b. 44
c. 46
d. None of the above
133. A Train completes a journey with a few
stoppages in between at an average speed
of 40 Km per hour. If the train had not
stooped anywhere, it would have
completed the journey at an average speed
of 60 Km per hour . On an average , how
many minutes per hour does the train stop
during the journey ?
a. 20 minutes per hour
b. 18 minutes per hours
c. 15 minutes per hours
d. 10 minutes per hours
134. Who among of the following have been
the Union Finance Minister of India ?
1. V P Singh
2. R Venkataraman
3. Y B Charan
4. Pranab Mukherjee
Select the correct answer using the code
given below :
a. 1 , 2 and 3 only
b. 1 , 3 and 4 only
c. 2 and 4 only
d. 1, 2 , 3 and 4
135. Which one of the following is the correct
sequence in the decreasing order of
production ( in million tones ) of the given
food grains in India ?
a. Wheat – Rice – Pulses – Coarse
Cereals
b. Rice – Wheat – Pulse- Coarse Cereals
c. Wheat – Rice – Coarse cereals – pulse
d. Rice – Wheat – Coarse Cereals – Pulse
136. Which one of the following pairs of
countries joined the European Union
2007?
a. Bulgaria and Romania
b. Bulgaria and Belgium
c. Romania and Slovenia
d. Hungary and Croatia
137. What was the average distance
(approximate) between the Sun and the
earth ?
a. 70 x 105 Km
b. 70 x 105 Km
c. 70 x 106 Km
d. 70 x 106 Km
138. Consider the following statements :
1. If magenta and yellow coloured circles
intersect, the intersected area will have
red colour.
2. If cyan and magenta coloured circles
intersect, the intersected area will have
blue colure.
Which of the following statements given
above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
139. Consider the following statements:
1. A flute of smaller length waves of
lower frequency.
2. Sound travels in rocks in the form of
longitudinal elastic waves only.
Which of the following statements given
above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
140. Four wires of same material and of
dimensions as under are stretched by a
load of same magnitude separately. Which
one of them will be elongated maximum.
a. Wire of 1m length and 2 mm diameter
b. Wire of 2m length and 2 mm diameter
c. Wire of 3m length and 1.5 mm
diameter
d. Wire of 1m length and 1 mm diameter
141. The average salary of 100 employees in an
office is Rs 16000 per month. The
management decided to raise salary of
every employee by 5 % but stooped a
transport allowance of Rs 800 per month
15 of 15
which was paid earlier to every employee.
What will be the new average monthly
salary?
a. Rs 16000
b. Rs 16500
c. Rs 16800
d. Cannot be known since data are
insufficient
142. Raghu Rai is well known for which one of
the following areas?
a. Research in Mathematics
b. Photography
c. Water harvesting
d. Pollution control
143. Which one of the following organizations
won the CSIR Award for Science and
Technology ( S & T ) Innovations for
Rural Development , 2006.
a. CLRI
b. IARI
c. NDDB
d. NDRI
144. Which one of the following cities does not
have the same clock time as that of the
others cities at any given instant ?
a. London ( UK )
b. Lisbon ( Portugal )
c. Accra ( Ghana )
d. Addis Ababa ( Ethiopia )
145. Which one of the following parts of the
pitcher plants becomes modified into a
pitcher?
a. Stem
b. Leaf
c. Stipule
d. Petiole
146. Assertion ( A). the Council of Ministers in
the Union of India is collectively
responsible both to the Lok sabha and The
Rajya Sabha
Reasons ( R ) : The Members of both the
Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are
eligible to be the Ministers of the Union.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
147. Assertion (A): According to the wavell
Plan, the Number of Hindu and Muslim
members in the executive council were to
be equal.
Reason (R) : Wavell thought that this
arrangement would have avoided the
partition of India.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
148. Assertion (A) : River Kalinadi is an east
following river in the Southern Part of
India.
Reason (R) : The Deccan Plateau is higher
along its western edge and gently slopes
towards the Bay of Bengal in the East.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
149. Assertion (A) : There are no tea
plantations in any African country.
Reason (R) : Tea plants need fertile soil
with high humus.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
150. Assertion (A) : A jet aircraft moving at
Mach Number equal to 1 travels faster at
an altitude of 15 km than while moving at
Mack Number equal to 1 near the sea
level.
Reason (R) : The velocity of sounds on the
temperature of surrounding medium.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
Friday, April 24, 2009
Thursday, April 23, 2009
JTO- Electrical- Scheme
Scheme and Syllabus for the Recruitment of Junior Telecom Officers(Electrical) Examination - 2008
SCHEME
Examination Date: 21.06.2009
For direct recruitment of JTOs(Electrical), an objective type examination of one paper of three hours duration consisting of following sections will be conducted :-
Section-I : Electrical Engineering : 50 questions
Section-II : Electrical Engineering : 50 questions
Section-III : General Awareness : 20 questions
The questions will be so designed as to assess the ability of the candidates to apply their technical knowledge to the solution of the problems.
The syllabus for JTOs(Electrical) Paper will as given below.
SYLLABUS
SECTION-I - ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
1. EM Theory
Electric and magnetic fields. Gauss's Law and Amperes Law. Fields in dielectrics, conductors and magnetic materials. Maxwell's equations. Time varying fields. Plane-Wave propagating in dielectric and conducting media. Transmission lines.
2. Electrical Materials
Band Theory, Conductors, Semi-conductors. and Insulators. Super¬conductivity. Insulators for electrical and electronic applications. Magnetic materials. Ferro and ferri magnetism. Ceramics, Properties and applications. Hall effect alJd its applications. Special semi conductors.
3. Electrical Circuits
Circuits elements. Kirchoff's Laws. Mesh and nodal analysis. Network Theorems and applications. Natural response and forced response. Transient response and steady state response for arbitrary inputs. Properties of networks in terms of poles and zeros. Transfer function. Resonant circuits. Three phase circuits. Two-port networks. Elements of two-element network synthesis.
4. Measurements and Instrumentation
Units and Standards. Error analysis, measurement of current, Voltage, power, Power-factor and energy. Indicating instruments. Measurement of resistance, inductance, Capacitance and frequency. Bridge measurements. Electronic measuring instruments. Digital Voltmeter and frequency counter. Transducers and their applications to the measurement of non-electrical quantities like temperature, pressure, flow-rate displacement, acceleration, noise level etc. Data acquisition systems. AID and D/A converters.
5. Control System
Mathematical modelling of physical systems. Block diagrams and signal flow graphs and their reduction. Time domain and frequency domain analysis of linear dynamical system. Errors for different type of inputs and stability criteria for feedback systems. Stability analysis using Routh-Hurwitz array, Nyquist plot and Bode plot. Root locus and Nicols chart and the estimation of gain and phase margin. Basic concepts of compensator design. State variable matrix and its use in system modelling and design. Sampled data system and performance of such a system with the samples in the error channel. Stability of sampled data system. Elements of non-linear control analysis. Control system components, electromechanical, hydraulic, pneumatic components.
SECTION-II - ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
1. Electrical Machines and Power Transformers
Magnetic Circuits - Analysis and Design of Power transformers. Construction and testing. Equivalent circuits. Losses and efficiency. Regulation. Auto-transformer, 3-phase transformer. Parallel operation.
Basic concepts in rotating machines. EMF, torque, basic machine types. Construction and operation, leakage losses and efficiency.
D.C. Machines. Construction, Excitation methods. Circuit models. Armature reaction and commutation. Characteristics and performance analysis. Generators and motors. Starting and speed control. Testing, Losses and efficiency.
Synchronous Machines. Construction. Circuit model. Operating characteristics and performance analysis. Synchronous reactance. Efficiency. Voltage regulation. Salient-pole machine, Parallel operation. . tiunting. Short circuit transients.
Induction Machines. Construction. Principle of operation. Rotating fields. Characteristics and performance analysis. Determination of circuit model. Circle diagram. Starting and speed control.
Fractional KW motors. Single-phase synchronous and induction motors.
2. Power systems
Types of Power Stations, Hydro, Thermal and Nuclear Stations. Pumped storage plants. Economics and operating factors.
Power transmission lines. Modeling and performance characteristics. Voltage control. Load flow studies. Optimal power system operation. Load frequency control. Symmetrical short circuit analysis. ZBus formulation. Symmetrical Components. Per Unit representation. Fault analysis. Transient and steady-state stability of power systems. Equal area criterion.
Power system Transients. Power system Protection Circuit breakers. Relays. HVDC transmission.
3. Analog and Digital Electronics and Circuits
Semiconductor device physics, PN junctions and transistors, circuit models and parameters, FET, Zener, tunnel, Schottky, photo diodes and their applications, rectifier circuits, voltage regulators and multipliers, switching behavior of diodes and transistors.
Small signal amplifiers, biasing circuits, frequency response and improvement, multistage amplifiers and feed-back amplifiers, D.C.
amplifiers, Oscillators. Large signal amplifiers, coupling methods, push pull amplifiers, operational amplifiers, wave shaping circuits. Multivibrators and flip-flops and their applications. Digital logic gate families, universal gates-combination circuits for arithmetic and logic operational, sequential logic circuits. Counters, registers, RAM and ROMs.
4. Microprocessor
Microprocessor architecture-Instruction set and simple assembly language programming. Interfacing for memory and I/O. Applications of Micro-processors in power system.
5. Communication Systems
Types of modulation; AM, FM and PM. Demodulators. Noise and bandwidth considerations. Digital communication systems. Pulse code modulation and demodulation. Elements of sound and vision broadcasting. Carrier communication. Frequency division and time division multiplexing, Telemetry system in power engineering.
6. Power Electronics
Power Semiconductor devices. Thyristor. Power transistor, GTOs and
MOSFETS. Characteristics and operation. AC to DC Converters; 1¬phase and 3-phase DC to DC Converters; AC regulators. Thyristor controlled reactors; switched capacitor networks.
Inverters; single-phase and 3-phase. Pulse width modulation. Sinusoidal modulation with uniform sampling. Switched mode power supplies.
SECTION-III - GENERAL ABILITY TEST
The candidate’s comprehension and understanding of general English shall be tested through simple exercises. Questions on knowledge of current events and of such matter of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person. Questions will also be included on events and developments in Tele Communications, History of India and Geography. These will be of a nature, which can be answered without special study by an educated person.
SCHEME
Examination Date: 21.06.2009
For direct recruitment of JTOs(Electrical), an objective type examination of one paper of three hours duration consisting of following sections will be conducted :-
Section-I : Electrical Engineering : 50 questions
Section-II : Electrical Engineering : 50 questions
Section-III : General Awareness : 20 questions
The questions will be so designed as to assess the ability of the candidates to apply their technical knowledge to the solution of the problems.
The syllabus for JTOs(Electrical) Paper will as given below.
SYLLABUS
SECTION-I - ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
1. EM Theory
Electric and magnetic fields. Gauss's Law and Amperes Law. Fields in dielectrics, conductors and magnetic materials. Maxwell's equations. Time varying fields. Plane-Wave propagating in dielectric and conducting media. Transmission lines.
2. Electrical Materials
Band Theory, Conductors, Semi-conductors. and Insulators. Super¬conductivity. Insulators for electrical and electronic applications. Magnetic materials. Ferro and ferri magnetism. Ceramics, Properties and applications. Hall effect alJd its applications. Special semi conductors.
3. Electrical Circuits
Circuits elements. Kirchoff's Laws. Mesh and nodal analysis. Network Theorems and applications. Natural response and forced response. Transient response and steady state response for arbitrary inputs. Properties of networks in terms of poles and zeros. Transfer function. Resonant circuits. Three phase circuits. Two-port networks. Elements of two-element network synthesis.
4. Measurements and Instrumentation
Units and Standards. Error analysis, measurement of current, Voltage, power, Power-factor and energy. Indicating instruments. Measurement of resistance, inductance, Capacitance and frequency. Bridge measurements. Electronic measuring instruments. Digital Voltmeter and frequency counter. Transducers and their applications to the measurement of non-electrical quantities like temperature, pressure, flow-rate displacement, acceleration, noise level etc. Data acquisition systems. AID and D/A converters.
5. Control System
Mathematical modelling of physical systems. Block diagrams and signal flow graphs and their reduction. Time domain and frequency domain analysis of linear dynamical system. Errors for different type of inputs and stability criteria for feedback systems. Stability analysis using Routh-Hurwitz array, Nyquist plot and Bode plot. Root locus and Nicols chart and the estimation of gain and phase margin. Basic concepts of compensator design. State variable matrix and its use in system modelling and design. Sampled data system and performance of such a system with the samples in the error channel. Stability of sampled data system. Elements of non-linear control analysis. Control system components, electromechanical, hydraulic, pneumatic components.
SECTION-II - ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
1. Electrical Machines and Power Transformers
Magnetic Circuits - Analysis and Design of Power transformers. Construction and testing. Equivalent circuits. Losses and efficiency. Regulation. Auto-transformer, 3-phase transformer. Parallel operation.
Basic concepts in rotating machines. EMF, torque, basic machine types. Construction and operation, leakage losses and efficiency.
D.C. Machines. Construction, Excitation methods. Circuit models. Armature reaction and commutation. Characteristics and performance analysis. Generators and motors. Starting and speed control. Testing, Losses and efficiency.
Synchronous Machines. Construction. Circuit model. Operating characteristics and performance analysis. Synchronous reactance. Efficiency. Voltage regulation. Salient-pole machine, Parallel operation. . tiunting. Short circuit transients.
Induction Machines. Construction. Principle of operation. Rotating fields. Characteristics and performance analysis. Determination of circuit model. Circle diagram. Starting and speed control.
Fractional KW motors. Single-phase synchronous and induction motors.
2. Power systems
Types of Power Stations, Hydro, Thermal and Nuclear Stations. Pumped storage plants. Economics and operating factors.
Power transmission lines. Modeling and performance characteristics. Voltage control. Load flow studies. Optimal power system operation. Load frequency control. Symmetrical short circuit analysis. ZBus formulation. Symmetrical Components. Per Unit representation. Fault analysis. Transient and steady-state stability of power systems. Equal area criterion.
Power system Transients. Power system Protection Circuit breakers. Relays. HVDC transmission.
3. Analog and Digital Electronics and Circuits
Semiconductor device physics, PN junctions and transistors, circuit models and parameters, FET, Zener, tunnel, Schottky, photo diodes and their applications, rectifier circuits, voltage regulators and multipliers, switching behavior of diodes and transistors.
Small signal amplifiers, biasing circuits, frequency response and improvement, multistage amplifiers and feed-back amplifiers, D.C.
amplifiers, Oscillators. Large signal amplifiers, coupling methods, push pull amplifiers, operational amplifiers, wave shaping circuits. Multivibrators and flip-flops and their applications. Digital logic gate families, universal gates-combination circuits for arithmetic and logic operational, sequential logic circuits. Counters, registers, RAM and ROMs.
4. Microprocessor
Microprocessor architecture-Instruction set and simple assembly language programming. Interfacing for memory and I/O. Applications of Micro-processors in power system.
5. Communication Systems
Types of modulation; AM, FM and PM. Demodulators. Noise and bandwidth considerations. Digital communication systems. Pulse code modulation and demodulation. Elements of sound and vision broadcasting. Carrier communication. Frequency division and time division multiplexing, Telemetry system in power engineering.
6. Power Electronics
Power Semiconductor devices. Thyristor. Power transistor, GTOs and
MOSFETS. Characteristics and operation. AC to DC Converters; 1¬phase and 3-phase DC to DC Converters; AC regulators. Thyristor controlled reactors; switched capacitor networks.
Inverters; single-phase and 3-phase. Pulse width modulation. Sinusoidal modulation with uniform sampling. Switched mode power supplies.
SECTION-III - GENERAL ABILITY TEST
The candidate’s comprehension and understanding of general English shall be tested through simple exercises. Questions on knowledge of current events and of such matter of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person. Questions will also be included on events and developments in Tele Communications, History of India and Geography. These will be of a nature, which can be answered without special study by an educated person.
JTO Civil-Scheme
Scheme and Syllabus for the Recruitment of Engineer Junior Telecom Officers(Civil)
EXAMINATION DATE : 21.06.2009
For Direct Recruitment of Junior Telecom Officer(Civil), an objective type Examination of 3 hours duration consisting of following sectional papers will be conducted:
SCHEME
A. Civil Engineering Stream Section - I : 50 questions
B. Civil Engineering Stream Section - II : 50 questions
C. General Ability Test Section - III : 20 questions
1. The standard of paper in Engineering subjects will be that of Engineering Degree Examination of Indian University.
2. In the general ability test, special attention will be paid to assess the candidate’s capacity for general awareness. The standard of paper in general ability test will be such as may be expected of an Engineering Graduate.
3. The syllabus for Civil Engineering stream paper will be as given below.
SYLLABUS:
SECTION-I - CIVIL ENGINEERING STREAM
1. BUILDING MATERIAL:
Timber: Different types and species of structural timber, density-moisture relationship, strength in different directions, defects, influence of defects on permissible stress, preservation, dry and wet rots, plywood, codal provision for design.
Bricks: Types, Indian standard classification, absorption, saturation factor, strength in masonry, influence of mortar strength and masonary strength.
Cement: Compounds, different types, setting times, strength.
Cement Mortar: Ingredients, proportions, water demands, mortar for plastering and masonry.
Concrete: Importance of W/C ratio, strength, ingredients including admixtures, workability, testing, elasticity, non-destructive testing mix design method.
2. SOLID MECHANICS
Elastic constants, stress, plane stress, Mohr’s circle of stress, strains, plain strain, Mohr’s circle of strain, combined stress. Elastic theories of Failure, simple and shear bending, Torsion of circular and rectangular section and simple members.
3. STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS
Analysis of determinate structures- different methods including graphical methods. Analysis of indeterminate skeletal frames- moment distribution, slope deflection, stiffness and force methods, energy methods. Muller-Breslau principal and application. Plastic analysis of indeterminate beams and simple frames-shape factors.
4. DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES
Principle of working stress method. Design of connections of simple members. Built up sections and frames. Design of Industrial roofs. Principles of ultimate load design. Design of members and frames.
5. DESIGN OF CONCRETE AND MASONRY STRUCTURES.
Limit state design for bending, shear, axial compression and combined forces, Codal provisions for slabs, beams, walls and footings. Working stress method of design of R.C. members.
Principles of prestressed concrete design, material, method of prestressing losses. Design of simple members and determinates structures. Introductions to prestressing of indeterminate structures.
Design of brick masonary as per I.S. codes.
6. CONSTRUCTION PRACTICE, PLANNING AND MANAGEMENT.
Concreting Equipment:
Weight batcher, Mixer, vibrator, batching plant, concrete pump.
Cranes, hoists, lifting equipment.
Earthwork Equipment:
Power shovel, hoe, dozer, dumper, trailers and tractors, rollers, sheep foot rollers, pumps.
Construction, planning and Management:
Bar chart, linked bar chart, work break down structures, Activity-on-arrow diagrams. Critical path, probabilistic activity durations; Event-based networks.
PERT network: Time-cost study, crashing; Resource allocation.
SECTION- II - CIVIL ENGINEERING STREAM
1. (a) FLUID MECHANICS, OPEN CHANNEL, PIPE FLOW:
Fluid properties, pressure, thrust, Buoyancy, Flow Kinematics, integration, of flow equation, Flow measurement, Relative motion, Moment of momentum, Viscosity, Boundary layer and control, Drag, Lift, Dimensional analysis, Modeling, Cavitations, Flow oscillations, Momentum and Energy principles, in open cannel flow, Flow control, Hydraulic jump, Flow section and properties, Normal flow, Gradually varied flow, Flow development and losses in pipe flows, Measurements, Siphons, Surges and Water hammer, Delivery of Power Pipe networks.
(b) HYDRAULIC MACHINES AND HYDROPOWER
Centrifugal pumps, performance parameters, scaling, pumps in parallel, Reciprocating pumps, air vessels, performance parameters;
2. (a) HYDROLOGY:
Hydrological cycle, precipitation and related data analysis, PMP, unit and synthetic hydrographs, Evaporation and transpiration, floods and their management, PMG, Streams and their gauging, .River morphology. Rooting of floods, Capacity of reservoirs.
(b) WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING:
Water resources of the globe: Multipurpose uses of Water, Soil Plant water relationships, irrigation systems, water demand assessment, Storage and their yields, ground water yield and well Hydraulics, Water logging, drainage design, Irrigation revenue, Design of rigid boundary canals, Lacey’ and Tractive force concepts in canal design, lining of canals; Sediment transport in canals; Non-Overflow and overflow sections of gravity dams and their design, Energy dissipaters and tail water rating, Design of head works, distribution work, falls, cross-drainage work, outlets, River training.
ENVIRONMENT ENGINEERING
3. (a)WATER SUPPLY ENGINEERING.
Sources of supply, yield, design of intakes and conductors, Estimation of demand, Water quality standards, Control of water born diseases. Primary and secondary treatment, detailing and maintenance of treatment units. Conveyance and distribution systems of treated water, leakage and control, Rural water supply, Institutional and Industrial water supply.
(b) WASTE WATER ENGINEERING
Urban rain water disposal, system of sewage collection and disposal, Design of sewers and sewerages systems, pumping, Characteristic of sewage and its treatment, Disposal of products of sewage treatment, stream flow rejuvenation, Institutional and industrial sewage management, plumbing system, Rural and semi-urban sanitation.
( c) SOLID WASTE MANAGEMENT
Sources, classification, collection and disposal, Design and Management of landfills.
(d) AIR AND NOISE POLLUTION AND ECOLOGY.
Sources and effects of air pollution, monitoring of Air pollution, Noise-pollution and standards; Ecological Chain and balance, Environmental assessment.
4. (a)SOIL MECHANICS
Properties of soils, classification and interrelationship, Compaction behavior, method of compaction and their choice, Permeability and seepage, flow nets, Inverter filters, Compressibility and consolidation ,shearing resistance, stresses and failure, SO testing in laboratory and in-situ, Stress path and applications, Earth pressure theories, stress distribution in soil, soil exploration, samplers, load tests ,penetration tests.
(b) FOUNDATION ENGINEERING
Type of foundations, Selection criteria, bearing capacity, settlement, laboratory and field test, Types of piles and their design and layout, Foundations on expansive soils, swelling and it prevention , foundation on swelling soils.
5. (a) SURVEYING
Classification of surveys, scales, accuracy, Measurement of distances-direct and indirect methods, optical and electronic devices, Measurement of directions, prismatic compass, local attraction, Theodolites-types Measurment of elevations, Spirit and trigonometric leveling, Relief representation,Contours,Digital elevation modeling concept, Establishment of control by triangulations and traversing measurements and adjustment of observations, computation of coordinates, Field astronomy, concept of global positioning system, Map preparation by plane tabling and by photogrammetry, Remote sensing concepts, map substitutes.
(b) TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING
Planning of highway systems, alignment and geometric design, horizontal and vertical curves, grade separation, Materials and construction methods for different surfaces and maintenance, Principles of pavement design, Drainage.
Traffic surveys, intersections, signalling, Mass transit systems, accessibility, networking.
Planning of railway systems, terminology and designs, relating to gauge, track controls, transits, rolling stock, tractive power and track modernization, Maintenance Appurtenant works, Containerisation.
SECTION-III - GENERAL ABILITY TEST
The candidate’s comprehension and understanding of general English shall be tested through simple exercises. Questions on knowledge of current events and of such matter of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person. Questions will also be included on events and developments in Tele Communications, History of India and Geography. These will be of a nature, which can be answered without special study by an educated person.
EXAMINATION DATE : 21.06.2009
For Direct Recruitment of Junior Telecom Officer(Civil), an objective type Examination of 3 hours duration consisting of following sectional papers will be conducted:
SCHEME
A. Civil Engineering Stream Section - I : 50 questions
B. Civil Engineering Stream Section - II : 50 questions
C. General Ability Test Section - III : 20 questions
1. The standard of paper in Engineering subjects will be that of Engineering Degree Examination of Indian University.
2. In the general ability test, special attention will be paid to assess the candidate’s capacity for general awareness. The standard of paper in general ability test will be such as may be expected of an Engineering Graduate.
3. The syllabus for Civil Engineering stream paper will be as given below.
SYLLABUS:
SECTION-I - CIVIL ENGINEERING STREAM
1. BUILDING MATERIAL:
Timber: Different types and species of structural timber, density-moisture relationship, strength in different directions, defects, influence of defects on permissible stress, preservation, dry and wet rots, plywood, codal provision for design.
Bricks: Types, Indian standard classification, absorption, saturation factor, strength in masonry, influence of mortar strength and masonary strength.
Cement: Compounds, different types, setting times, strength.
Cement Mortar: Ingredients, proportions, water demands, mortar for plastering and masonry.
Concrete: Importance of W/C ratio, strength, ingredients including admixtures, workability, testing, elasticity, non-destructive testing mix design method.
2. SOLID MECHANICS
Elastic constants, stress, plane stress, Mohr’s circle of stress, strains, plain strain, Mohr’s circle of strain, combined stress. Elastic theories of Failure, simple and shear bending, Torsion of circular and rectangular section and simple members.
3. STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS
Analysis of determinate structures- different methods including graphical methods. Analysis of indeterminate skeletal frames- moment distribution, slope deflection, stiffness and force methods, energy methods. Muller-Breslau principal and application. Plastic analysis of indeterminate beams and simple frames-shape factors.
4. DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES
Principle of working stress method. Design of connections of simple members. Built up sections and frames. Design of Industrial roofs. Principles of ultimate load design. Design of members and frames.
5. DESIGN OF CONCRETE AND MASONRY STRUCTURES.
Limit state design for bending, shear, axial compression and combined forces, Codal provisions for slabs, beams, walls and footings. Working stress method of design of R.C. members.
Principles of prestressed concrete design, material, method of prestressing losses. Design of simple members and determinates structures. Introductions to prestressing of indeterminate structures.
Design of brick masonary as per I.S. codes.
6. CONSTRUCTION PRACTICE, PLANNING AND MANAGEMENT.
Concreting Equipment:
Weight batcher, Mixer, vibrator, batching plant, concrete pump.
Cranes, hoists, lifting equipment.
Earthwork Equipment:
Power shovel, hoe, dozer, dumper, trailers and tractors, rollers, sheep foot rollers, pumps.
Construction, planning and Management:
Bar chart, linked bar chart, work break down structures, Activity-on-arrow diagrams. Critical path, probabilistic activity durations; Event-based networks.
PERT network: Time-cost study, crashing; Resource allocation.
SECTION- II - CIVIL ENGINEERING STREAM
1. (a) FLUID MECHANICS, OPEN CHANNEL, PIPE FLOW:
Fluid properties, pressure, thrust, Buoyancy, Flow Kinematics, integration, of flow equation, Flow measurement, Relative motion, Moment of momentum, Viscosity, Boundary layer and control, Drag, Lift, Dimensional analysis, Modeling, Cavitations, Flow oscillations, Momentum and Energy principles, in open cannel flow, Flow control, Hydraulic jump, Flow section and properties, Normal flow, Gradually varied flow, Flow development and losses in pipe flows, Measurements, Siphons, Surges and Water hammer, Delivery of Power Pipe networks.
(b) HYDRAULIC MACHINES AND HYDROPOWER
Centrifugal pumps, performance parameters, scaling, pumps in parallel, Reciprocating pumps, air vessels, performance parameters;
2. (a) HYDROLOGY:
Hydrological cycle, precipitation and related data analysis, PMP, unit and synthetic hydrographs, Evaporation and transpiration, floods and their management, PMG, Streams and their gauging, .River morphology. Rooting of floods, Capacity of reservoirs.
(b) WATER RESOURCES ENGINEERING:
Water resources of the globe: Multipurpose uses of Water, Soil Plant water relationships, irrigation systems, water demand assessment, Storage and their yields, ground water yield and well Hydraulics, Water logging, drainage design, Irrigation revenue, Design of rigid boundary canals, Lacey’ and Tractive force concepts in canal design, lining of canals; Sediment transport in canals; Non-Overflow and overflow sections of gravity dams and their design, Energy dissipaters and tail water rating, Design of head works, distribution work, falls, cross-drainage work, outlets, River training.
ENVIRONMENT ENGINEERING
3. (a)WATER SUPPLY ENGINEERING.
Sources of supply, yield, design of intakes and conductors, Estimation of demand, Water quality standards, Control of water born diseases. Primary and secondary treatment, detailing and maintenance of treatment units. Conveyance and distribution systems of treated water, leakage and control, Rural water supply, Institutional and Industrial water supply.
(b) WASTE WATER ENGINEERING
Urban rain water disposal, system of sewage collection and disposal, Design of sewers and sewerages systems, pumping, Characteristic of sewage and its treatment, Disposal of products of sewage treatment, stream flow rejuvenation, Institutional and industrial sewage management, plumbing system, Rural and semi-urban sanitation.
( c) SOLID WASTE MANAGEMENT
Sources, classification, collection and disposal, Design and Management of landfills.
(d) AIR AND NOISE POLLUTION AND ECOLOGY.
Sources and effects of air pollution, monitoring of Air pollution, Noise-pollution and standards; Ecological Chain and balance, Environmental assessment.
4. (a)SOIL MECHANICS
Properties of soils, classification and interrelationship, Compaction behavior, method of compaction and their choice, Permeability and seepage, flow nets, Inverter filters, Compressibility and consolidation ,shearing resistance, stresses and failure, SO testing in laboratory and in-situ, Stress path and applications, Earth pressure theories, stress distribution in soil, soil exploration, samplers, load tests ,penetration tests.
(b) FOUNDATION ENGINEERING
Type of foundations, Selection criteria, bearing capacity, settlement, laboratory and field test, Types of piles and their design and layout, Foundations on expansive soils, swelling and it prevention , foundation on swelling soils.
5. (a) SURVEYING
Classification of surveys, scales, accuracy, Measurement of distances-direct and indirect methods, optical and electronic devices, Measurement of directions, prismatic compass, local attraction, Theodolites-types Measurment of elevations, Spirit and trigonometric leveling, Relief representation,Contours,Digital elevation modeling concept, Establishment of control by triangulations and traversing measurements and adjustment of observations, computation of coordinates, Field astronomy, concept of global positioning system, Map preparation by plane tabling and by photogrammetry, Remote sensing concepts, map substitutes.
(b) TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING
Planning of highway systems, alignment and geometric design, horizontal and vertical curves, grade separation, Materials and construction methods for different surfaces and maintenance, Principles of pavement design, Drainage.
Traffic surveys, intersections, signalling, Mass transit systems, accessibility, networking.
Planning of railway systems, terminology and designs, relating to gauge, track controls, transits, rolling stock, tractive power and track modernization, Maintenance Appurtenant works, Containerisation.
SECTION-III - GENERAL ABILITY TEST
The candidate’s comprehension and understanding of general English shall be tested through simple exercises. Questions on knowledge of current events and of such matter of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person. Questions will also be included on events and developments in Tele Communications, History of India and Geography. These will be of a nature, which can be answered without special study by an educated person.
JTO Telecom-Syllabus
Scheme and Syllabus for the Recruitment of Junior Telecom Officers(Telecom)
EXAMINATION DATE : 21.06.2009
For Direct Recruitment of Junior Telecom Officers, an objective type Examination of 3 hours duration consisting of following sectional papers will be conducted:
SCHEME
A. Engineering Stream Section - I
B. Engineering Stream Section - II
C. General Ability Test Section - III
1. The standard of paper in Engineering subjects will be that of Engineering Degree Examination of an Indian University.
2. In the general ability test, special attention will be paid to assess the candidate’s capacity for general awareness. The standard of paper in general ability test will be such as may be expected of an Engineering Graduate.
3. The syllabus for engineering stream papers will be as given below.
SYLLABUS
SECTION - I
1. Materials and components
Structure and properties of Electronic Engineering materials, Conductors, Semiconductors and Insulators, Magnetic, Ferroelectric, Piezoelectric, Ceramic, Optical and Superconducting materials. Passive components and characteristics, Resistors, Capacitors and Inductors; Ferrites, Quartz crystal, Ceramic resonators, Electromagnetic and Electromechanical components.
2. Physical Electronics, Electron Devices and ICs
Electrons and holes in semiconductors, Carrier Statistics, Mechanics of current flow in a semi-conductor, Hall effect; Junction theory; Different types of diodes and their characteristics; Bipolar Junction transistor; Field effect transistors; Power switching devices like SCRs, CTOs, power MOSFETs; Basics of ICs-bipolar, MOS and CMOS types; Basics of Opto Electronics.
3. Network theory
Network analysis techniques: Network theorem, transcient and steady state sinusoidal response, Transmission criteria: delay and rise time Elmore’s and other definition, effect of cascading. Elements of network synthesis.
4. Electromagnetic Theory
Transmission lines: basic theory, standing waves, matching applications, microstrip lines; Basics of waveguides and resonators; Elements of antenna theory.
5. Electronic Measurements and instrumentation
Basic concepts, standards and error analysis; Measurements of basic electrical quantities and parameters; Electronic measuring instruments and their principles of working: analog and digital, comparison, characteristics, applications. Transducers; Electronic measurements of non-electrical quantities like temperature, pressure, humidity etc. Basics of telemetry for industrial use.
6. Power Electronics
Power Semiconductor devices, Thyristor, Power transistor, MOSFETs, Characteristics and operation. AC to DC convertors; 1-Phase and 3-phase DC to DC Convertors.
AC regulators. Thyristor controlled reactors, switched capacitor networks.
Inverters: Single-phase and 3-phase. Pulse width modulation. Sinusoidal modulation with uniform sampling. Switched mode power supplies.
SECTION-II
1. Analog Electronic Circuits
Transistor biasing and stabilization, Small Signal analysis. Power amplifiers. Frequency response, Wide band techniques, Feedback amplifiers. Tuned amplifiers. Oscillators. Rectifiers and power supplies. Operational Amplifier, other linear integrated circuits and applications. Pulse shaping circuits and waveform generators.
2. Digital Electronic Circuits
Transistor as a switching element; Boolean algebra, simplification of Boolean functions, Karnaugh Map and applications; IC Logic gates and their characteristics; IC logic families: DTL, TTL, ECL, NMOS, PMOS and CMOS gates and their comparison; Combinational logic circuits; Half adder, full adder; Digital Compartor; Multiplexer Demultiplexer; ROM and their applications. Flip-flops, R-S, J-K, D and T flip-flops; Different types of counters and registers; waveform generators. A/D and D/A convertors. Semiconductor memories.
3. Control Systems
Transient and steady state response of control systems; Effect of feedback on stability and sensitivity, Root locus techniques; Frequency response analysis. Concepts of gain and phase margins; Constant-M and Constant-N Nichol’s Chart; Approximation of transient response from Constant-N Nichol’s Chart; Approximation of transient response from closed loop frequency response; Design of Control Systems, Compensators; Industrial controllers.
4. Communication systems
Basic information theory: Modulation and detection in analogue and digital systems; Sampling and data reconstruction. Quantization & Coding; Time division and frequency division multiplexing; Equalisation; Optical Communication: in free space & fibre optic; Propagation of signals at HF, VHF, UHF and microwave frequency; Satellite communication.
5. Microwave Engineering
Microwave Tubes and solid state devices, Microwave generation and amplifiers, Waveguides and other Microwave Components and Circuits, Microstrip circuits, Microwave antennas, Microwave Measurements, MASERS LASERS; Microwave Propogation. Microwave Communication Systems-terrestrial and satellite based.
6. Computer Engineering
Number Systems; Data representation; Programming; Elements of a high level programming language PASCAL/C; use of basic data structures; Fundamentals of computer architecture processor design; Control unit design; Memory organization. I/O System Organization. Personal computers and their typical uses.
7. Microprocessors
Microprocessor architecture - Instruction set and simple assembly language programming. Interfacing for memory and I/O. Applications of Microprocessors in Telecommunications and power system.
SECTION-III
General ability test
The candidate’s comprehension and understanding of General English shall be tested through simple exercises. Questions on knowledge of current events and of such matter of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person. Questions will also be included on events and developments in Telecommunications, History of India and Geography. These will be of a nature, which can be answered without special study by an educated person.
BSNL JTO- Telecom
SECTION-A
Q.1 A house served by a 220V supply light, is protected by a
9-Ampere fuse. The maximum number of 60 W bulbs in parallel
that can be turned on is
(a) 11 (b) 33
(c) 22 (d) 44
Q.2 An n-channel JFET has IDSS = 1 µA & VP =–5V. The maximum
transconductance is
(a) gm = 0.4 milli mho (b) gm = 0.04milli mho
(c) gm = 0.04 mho (d) gm = 0.4 millimilli mho
Q.3 The base to base resistance of a UJT is 6 K Ohm when the emitter
current is zero. If RB1 = 3.6 K Ohm, the intrinsic stand off ratio is
(a) n = 0.66 (b) n = 0.6
(c) n = 6.0 (d) n = 3.6
Q.4 A capacitor of 1µF initially charged to 10 V is connected across
an ideal inductor of 0.1 mH. The maximum current in the circuit is
(a) 0.5 A (b) 1 A
(c) 1.5 A (d) 2 A
Q.5 Silicon has a preference in IC technology because
(a) it is an indirect semiconductor
(b) it is a covalent semiconductor
(c) it is an elemental semiconductor
(d) of the availability of nature oxide SiO
Q.6 Three equal resistance of magnitude 5 Ohm each are connected
in delta. The resistance between any two pair of terminals of the
delta will be
(a) 5 Ohm (b) 5/3 Ohm
(c) 10/3 Ohm (d) 3/5 Ohm
Q.7 The R.M.S. value of a half wave rectified sinusoidal alternating
current with peak value Im is
(a) Im/1 (b) mI / 2
(c) mI /2 (d) mI 3
Q.8 For a series resonant circuit, at the half power points,which of the
following is true?
(a) Current is half of the current at resonance.
(b) Resistance is equal to the reactance.
(c) The impedance is half the impedance at the resonance.
(d) None of the above
Q.9 The lossless line of characterstics impedance 300 Ohm is
terminated in a pure resistance of 200 Ohm. The value of the
standing wave ratio is
(a) 1.5 (b) 0.67
(c) 1.0 (d) 1.25
Q.10 The transient current in lossless L-C circuit when excited from an
AC source is, sine wave
(a) Critically damped (b) Underdamped
(c) Overdamped (d) Undamped
Q.11 The values of L and C for a low pass filter with cut off frequency of
2.5 KHz and operating with a terminated load resistance of 450
Ohm are given by
(a) 57.3 mH; 0.283 µF (b) 28.66 µH; 0.14 µF
(c) 114.64 mH; 0.566 mF (d) 50.23 mH; 0.632 mF
Q.12 The driving point impedance with poles at ? = 0(zero) and ? = 8
(infinity) must have the
(a) s term in the denominator and an excess term in the numerator
(b) s term in the numerator and an excess term in the denominator
(c) s term in the numerator and equal number of terms in the
numerator and denominator
(d) s term in the denominator and equal number of terms in the
numerator and denominator
Q.13 A transmission line is terminated at its characterstic impedance.
The reflection coefficent is
(a) 1 (b) –1
(c) 0 (d) 8
Q.14 In the circuit shown below, the current through the 3/11O
resistance between terminals A & B is
(a) 4 Amps (b) 1 Amp
(c) 2 Amps (d) 5 Amps
Q.15 In a series RLC circuit operating below the resonant frequency
the current
(a) I leads Vs (b) I lags Vs
(c) I is in Phase with Vs (d) None of these
Q.16 An antenna has maximum radiation intensity Umax = 10 Watt/Sr
and average radiation intensity Uavg = 4.5 Watt/Sr. If the efficiency
of the antenna is given as ?r = 95%, the input power of the antenna
is
(a) 2.222 Watt (b) 12.11 Watt
(c) 55.55 Watt (d) 59.52 Watt
Q.17 In an airport, a receiving, antenna has a maximum dimension of 3
metres and operates at 100 MHz. An aircraft approaching the
airport is 1/2 Km away from the antenna . The aircraft is in the
region of the antenna.
(a) far-field (b) near-field
(c) close-field (d) Out of reach
Q.18 A lossless transmission line with characterstic impedance
500 Ohms is excited by a signal of voltage 10?0° volts at 1.2 MHz.
If the line is terminated by ZL at a distance 1 Km, the input
impedance s of the line for ZL = 8 (infinity) and ZL = 0 (zero) in
Ohm, respectively are
(a) +j8, 0 (b) –j8, 0
(c) 0, – j8 (d) 0, +j8
Q.19 If the electric field of a plane wave is represented by E = 10 yˆ
cos (109 t+30z) volt/m, assuming e is the dielectric constant, the
corresponding magnetic field H is
(a) – ˆy e 109/3 cos (109 t + 30z) Amp/m
(b) – ˆx e109/3 cos(109t + 30z) Amp/m
(c) – ˆz e 109/3 cos (109t + 30 z) Amp/m
(d) + ˆx e 109/3 cos (109t+30z) Amp/m
Q.20 A 50 Ohm lossless line connects a signal of 200 KHz to a load of
200 Ohm. If the load power in 100 mW, the value for voltage
minimum Vmin is
(a) ( 20)/4 (b) ( 10)/ 4
(c) ( 20)/ 2 (d) ( 10)/ 2
Q.21 Choose the correct statement
(a) Digital multimeters are built using current measuring elements,
while analog multimeters are built using voltage measuring units
(b) Digital multimeters are built using voltage measuring units,
while analog multimeters are built using current measuring units
(c) Both digital and analog multimeters are built using voltage
measuring units
(d) Both digital and analog multimeters are built using current
measuring units
Q.22 An analog voltmeter has a sensitivity of 10kO/volt. The
galvanometer used in constructing the instrument will produce a
full scale deflection when the current passed through it is
(a) 10 mA (b) 20 mA
(c) 50 mA (d) 100 µA
Q.23 The input versus output characteristics of a digital-to-analog
converter is given in the table below:
The converter is exhibiting
(a) offset error (b) statistical error
(c) linearity error (d) hysteresis error
Q.24 An optical fiber cable laid underground has developed a
discontinuity at a distance d from the source end. The fault can
be located using the instrument
(a) Optical spectrum Analyzer (OSA)
(b) Optical Time Domain Reflectometer (OTDR)
(c) Optical Power Meter (OPM)
(d) Laser Diffractometer (LD)
Q.25 Two sinusoidal signals of the same frequency are displayed on
a dual-trace oscilloscope. One complete cycle of each signal
covers 6 cm of the horizontal scale and the starting point of the
horizontal scale and the starting point of the two signals are
separated by 0.5 cm. The phase difference between the two
signals in degrees is
(a) 30 (b) 45
(c) 60 (d) 90
Q.26 Transient signals can be observed using
(a) storage oscillocope (b) sampling oscilloscope
(c) wave analyzer (d) spectrum analayzer
Q.27 The trace on an oscilloscope continually moves to the right of the
screen when
(a) the sweep is triggered.
(b) the sweep period is larger than the signal period.
(c) the sweep period is smaller than the signal period.
(d) there is no weep.
Q.28 In a dual trace oscilloscope, the display appears segmented when
(a) low frequency signals are observed in Alternate mode
(b) low frequency signals are observed in Chop mode
(c) high frequency signals are observed in Alternate mode
(d) high frequency signals are observed in Chop mode
Q.29 To distinguish between signals having very close values, we need
an instrument with
(a) high accuracy (b) high resolution
(c) high sensitivity (d) high linearity
Q.30 Match List-I (Instruments) with List-II (Measurement in which the
instrument is used) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Lock-in amplifier 1. Patient monitoring
B. Sampling oscillocope 2. Overcoming ground loop
problem
C. Isolation amplifier 3. Phase difference between
two signals
D. Strip-chart recorder 4. Signal recovery from noise
5. Observing very high
frequency signals
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 5 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 5 2 1
(d) 3 4 1 2
Q.31 A power diode has lightly doped n type substrate sandwiched
between heavily doped p and n regions
(a) to increase reverse breakdown voltage
(b) to reduce ohmic loss under forward bias
(c) to decrease switching time of the power diode
(d) to improve transient behaviour of the diode
Q.32 An ideal thyristor is driving an R-L load of impedance Z. Input AC
voltage is Vs = Vm sin ?mt. If thyristor is fired at an input phase
angle of 90°. What will be the output voltage and output current
across R-L load at the instant of firing?
(a) Output voltage is Vm and output current is Vm/Z
(b) Output voltage and output current are both zero
(c) Output voltage is zero and output current is delayed by an
angle 90°
(d) Output voltage is Vm and output current is zero
Q.33 In a regenerative braking, which of the following is generally true?
(a) Back e.m.f. in the motor exceeds the applied voltage
(b) Back e.m.f. is less than the applied voltage
(c) Kinetic energy of the motor is dissipated in a resistance
(d) Kinetic energy of the motor is dissipated through free wheeling
diode across the motor
Q.34 A step-down chopper, fed from a 120 volt DC source, operates a
DC motor whose armature e.m.f. and armature resistance are 100
volt and 0.5O respectively. With the magnitude control ratio 0.6,
the quadrant of operation DC motor is
(a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Fourth
Q.35 For IGBT, which of the following statement is true?
(a) Switching speed of IGBT is more than bipolar transistor
(b) IGBT is a current-controlled device
(c) On-state collector-emitter voltage is less than that of bipolar
junction transistor
(d) It combines voltage control features of MOSFET gate and
high power capability of bipolar transistor
Q.36 The semiconductor used for LEDs emitting in the visible range is
(a) GaAs (b) GaAlAs
(c) GalnAs (d) GaAsP
Q.37 The polar bonds existing in III-V compound semicondutor, may
be considered as equivalent to
(a) 1 ionic bond and 3 covalent bonds
(b) 1 ionic bond and 4 covalent bonds
(c) 2 ionic bonds and 2 covalent bonds
(d) 2 ionic bonds and 4 covalent bonds
Q.38 Which of the following pairs of crystal structure possesses the
same atomic packing density?
(a) simple cubic & body centred cubic
(b) body centred cubic & face centred cubic
(c) face centered cubic & hexagonal close packed
(d) body centred cubic & hexagonal close packed
Q.39 The colour bands on a carbon composition resistor occur in the
sequence: yellow, violet, yellow and silver. Its resistance is
(a) 470 KO ± 47 KO (b) 470 KO ± 23.5 %
(c) 47 KO ± 10 % (d) 47 KO ± 5 %
Q.40 The real & imaginary dielectric constants er' and er'' of 3 insulators
at 1 KHz and 50° C are listed below:
Material er' er''
Polycarbonate 2.47 0.003
PET 2.58 0.003
PEEK 2.24 0.003
At a given voltage, the lower power dissipation per unit
capacitance at 1 KHz can be obtained from
(a) Polycarbonate
(b) PET
(c) PEEK
(d) Insufficient information to answer
Q.41 A battery of 40 V and three capacitors of 1000 µF, 500 µF and 100
µF are all connected in (I) parallel and (II) series. The ratio of total
charge stored in case I to that in case II is approximately
(a) 3 : 64 (b) 64 : 3
(c) 160 : 3 (d) 104 : 5
Q.42 The magnetic flux f ( in Weber) linked with a coil at an instant of
time t(in second) is given by f(t) = 2t2 – 20t + 40. The induced
e.m.f. in the coil at the instant t =2 second is
(a) 22 V (b) 20 V
(c) 12 V (d) 10 V
Q.43 The speed of an audio cassette tape in a cassette player is 5cm/
sec. If the maximum frequency that needs to be recorded is 20
KHz, the minimum spatial wavelength on the tape is
(a) 40 µm (b) 25 µm
(c) 4 µm (d) 2.5 µm
Q.44 In a power transformer, the fundamental frequency of the hum
arising due to magnetostriction is
(a) equal to the line frequecy
(b) double the line frequency
(c) 4 times the line frequency
(d) not related to the line frequecny
Q.45 At a particular temperature and current density, the critical
magnetic field for a Type I superconductor is Bc and that for a
type II superconductor ranges from Bc1 to Bc2 keeping other
parameters unloaded. both superconductors are now subjected
to a magnetic field B that satisfies the conditions B>Bc and
Bc1 < q ="4q9," x ="d3" q ="–4q9," x ="dQ4="" q ="–4q9," x ="d3" q ="–4q9," x ="d4" gap =" 1.1" charge =" 1.6" a =" 0.99," ib =" lB" icbo =" 200" ic =" 2.5" ic =" 1.5mA" ic =" 3.5" ic =" 4.5" 1 =" A.Qn" 1 =" A.Qn+" 1 =" A.Qn" 1 =" A.Qn" k =" 0," n =" (no." mp =" 1.15." x =" P.Q" y="P.R" i0 =" X," i1=" 0," i2 =" X," i3 =" X" i0 =" 0," i1="1," i2 =" Y," i3 =" X" i0 =" X," i1 =" 1," i2 =" 0," i3 =" X" i0 =" X," i1 =" 0," i2 =" X," i3 =" Z" k =" 0." dt =" Ax(t)" a ="–2" b ="10" a ="0" b ="0" fc =" 0.16" d =" 0.5456" n =" 31.6"> 100 (b) > 500
(c) > 1000 (d) > 20000
Q.67 In an IF amplifier, the IF transformer is provided with tapping to
(a) increase the voltage gain
(b) increase the bandwidth of the resonance circuit
(c) increse the impedance offered by the resonance circuit to
the following cascaded amplifier
(d) increase the quality factor of the resonance circuit
Q.68 Consider the wave form V(t) = (1+m cos?mt) cos?ct. Show that, if
the demodulated wave is to follow the envelope of V(t), it is required
that at any time t0
(a) RC <=?m(msin?mt0 ) / (1+mcos?m t0) (b) (I/RC) >=
?m(msin?mt0 ) / (1+mcos?m t0 )
(c) 1/RC <=
1/(m?m)
(d) RC is very large
Q.69 QPSK system is superior to BPSK system because
(a) its bandwidth is higher than that of BPSK System
(b) interchannel interference in QPSK system is less then that in
BPSK system
(c) bandwidth of QPSK system is half of the bandwidth of BPSK
system
(d) in QPSK system inter-symbol interference is inproved
Q.70 A radio receiver is placed at one corner of a table and again
placed at some other corner of the same table. Loudspeaker output
is changed because
(a) image interference is reduced
(b) adjacent channel interference is increased
(c) of fading
(d) line of sight propagation is not utilized
Q.71 In time-division multiple access system, a traffic system on the
receiver side must receive the traffic burst addressed to it. For this
(a) transmitting frame acquisition is required
(b) proper synchronization of the timing of transmit frame is required
(c) frame efficiency should be higher
(d) synchronization is necessary to overcome the perturbations
of the satellite
Q.72 Earth coverage dish antenna is used in satellite system. It is
characterized by the fact that
(a) It is a narrow beam antenna
(b) It is Parabolic antenna
(c) it is sharply focused within a small area of the surface of the earth
(d) it is a wide angle antenna which covers a large area of the
surface of the earth
Q.73 In a Klystron amplifier, the RF voltage produces
(a) amplitude modulation (b) frequecny modulation
(c) phase modulation (d) velocity modulation
Q.74 For the proper operation of MASER at a frequency of 10 GHz, the
material used is
(a) Al2 O3 with slight doping of chromium
(b) Ti O2 with slight doping of iron
(c) Ti O2 with slight doping of chromium
(d) Al2 O3 with slight doping of iron
Q.75 A rectangular waveguide is 4.2 cm by 1.85 cm. The cut-off
frequency of the dominant mode through this waveguide is
(a) 3.57 GHz (b) 3.75 GHz
(c) 3.70 MHz (d) 3.57 MHz
Q.76 For an antenna to be frequency-independent, it should expand or
contract in proportion to the
(a) gain (b) directivity
(c) wavelength (d) impedance
Q.77 Suppose that data items, numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 come in
the input stream in this order. By using a queue, which of the
following rearrangement can be obtained in the output order ?
(a) 1 2 6 4 5 3 (b) 2 4 3 6 5 1
(c) 4 2 1 3 5 6 (d) 1 2 3 4 5 6
Q.78 We are told that the integers between 1 and 1000 are arranged in
a binary search trace with ‘<‘ as the ordering relation. Below are
four lists of vertices encountered as we search for the number
363. Which list cannot be produced by this search through a
binary search tree?
(a) 924, 220, 911, 244, 898, 248, 363
(b) 2, 252, 401, 398, 330, 344, 397, 363
(c) 925, 202, 911, 240, 912, 245, 363
(d) 2, 399, 387, 219, 266, 382, 381, 278, 363
Q.79 The number of 1’s in the binary representation of 13* 163 +11*16 + 2 is
(a) 8 (b) 7
(c) 9 (d) 12
Q.80 A disk has 500 bytes/sector,100 sectors / track, 20 heads and
1000 cylinders. Total capacity of disk is
(a) 1 GB (b) 100 MB
(c) 10 MB (d) 10 GB
Q.81 Suppose that the same clock signal is used to increment the
microprogram counter and to load the control register. Which of
the following asseration(s) is/are true?
1. Microinstruction execution time is at least two clock periods.
2. Microinstruction exceution time can be overlapped with
fetching the next microinstruction.
3. Unconditional branch microinstructions must necessarily take
longer than other types.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
Q.82 Some system architects do not find RISC instruction repertoire to
be cost-effective because it
(a) result in large increase in programme size
(b) result in complex structure of microcode
(c) has been observed that an average compiler does not employ
more than a limited subset of available instructions
(d) results in complex decoding of opcode filed resulting in longer
execution time
Q.83 A stake machine pushes operands on a stack and evaluates
binary operators by a pcs (i.e pop/compute/store) where the top
two operands are popped computation is performed and the result
is pushed onto stack. Evaluation of an expression (x* y) + (u* ?)
by Reverse Polish notation in a stack machine needs
(a) 4 push and 3 pcs instructions
(b) 6 push and 1 pcs instructions
(c) 4 push and 1 pcs instructions
(d) 5 push and 2 pcs instructions
Q.84 A dot matrix printer takes 3 msec to point a character, and 1 msec
for a space between two consecutive characters. If it prints 100
characters per line, its printing speed specifications in characters
per second (cps) and time to print a line of characters are
respectively
(a) 100 cps and 400 msec
(b) 2500 cps and 0.04 sec
(c) 250 cps and 40 msec
(d) 250 cps and 0.4 sec
Q.85 Consider the following program segment with 8085 microprocessor
LXI H 3600H
MOV A, M
HLT
The MOV instruction involves
(a) indirect addressing
(b) immediate addressing
(c) implicit addressing
(d) direct addressing
Q.86 To establish a communication between 8085 microprocessor and
8255 Programmable Peripheral Interface chip. the status of the
chip select input would be
(a) TRISTATE (b) HIGH
(b) LOW (d) DON’T CARE
Q.87 Which flag does not change by the execution of the instruction
DCR B in 8085 microprocessor ?
(a) Parity (b) Carry
(c) Zero (d) Sign
Q.88 Let the content of the memory location 3501H be 72H. Now
consider the following program with 8085 microprocessor
LDA 3501H
CMA
STA 3502H
HLT
The content of the memory location 3502H after execution of
programme will be
(a) 27H (b) D8H
(c) 8DH (d) 72H
Q.89 Given the program segment below, how many times will the
instruction LP: JNZ REP be executed?
MVI H, 02H
MVI L, 05H
REP : DCR L
LP : JNZ REP
: DCR H
: JNZ REP
...................
(a) 10 (b) 260
(c) 510 (d) 7
Q.90 What addressing mode is used in the instruction RET?
(a) Direct (b) Immediate
(c) Implicit (d) Register-indirect
Q.91 A one-byte instruction is executed in the 8085 microprocessor
by the following steps:
((SP) –1) ? (PCH)
((SP) –2) ? (PCL)
((SP) ? ((SP)-2)
(PC) ? 0008H
The corresponding instruction is
(a) JMP 0008H (b) PUSH PSW
(c) CALL 0008 H (d) RST 1
Q.92 The zero flag of 8085 microprocessor is to be set keeping the
content of the accumulator unchanged. Which instruction is to
be used?
(a) MOV A,A (b) ANI 00H
(c) XRA A (d) CMP A
Q.93 In class - A power amplifier, the collector dissipation is maximum
when
(a) no signal is present
(b) signal swing is maximum
(c) signal swing is (1/1.414) of its maximum
(d) none of the above
Q.94 If cut-in voltage and forward resistance of each diode (in the
adjoining figure) are 0.7 V and 1 ohm respectively, the current
through the 48 ohm resistor is
8 V
+ 48 O
–
(a) 132 mA (b) 160 mA
(c) 0 mA (a) (1/6) A
Q.95 The lower cut-off frequency of the transistor stage in the adjoining
figure is
Vcc
3 K
10 µF
V0
2 K
(a) 7.95 Hz (b) 13.25 Hz
(c) 5.30 Hz (d) 3.18 Hz
Q.96 In the adjoining current mirror circuit if Q1 and Q2 are identical
and base currents are not neglected, then which of the following
is true ?
I1 I2
Q1 Q2
(a) I2 = I1 (b) I2 = ßl1
(c) I2 = [(ß/(ß +2)]I1 (d) I2 = [(ß + 2)/ß]I1
Q.97 If rectangular input is applied to the adjoining circuit, it produces
R
C
I/P O/P –
+
(a) square output (b) spike output
(c) sinusoidal output (d) none of the above
Q.98 In an oscillator, if amplifier gain (A) without feedback is (1 + RF/
R1) and gain (ß) of the feedback network is 1/{3 + j(?Rc–1/?Rc)},
then which of the following is true ?
(a) RF = 2R1 (b) RF = R1
(a) |ß| = 3 (b) |ß| = 1/3
Q.1 A house served by a 220V supply light, is protected by a
9-Ampere fuse. The maximum number of 60 W bulbs in parallel
that can be turned on is
(a) 11 (b) 33
(c) 22 (d) 44
Q.2 An n-channel JFET has IDSS = 1 µA & VP =–5V. The maximum
transconductance is
(a) gm = 0.4 milli mho (b) gm = 0.04milli mho
(c) gm = 0.04 mho (d) gm = 0.4 millimilli mho
Q.3 The base to base resistance of a UJT is 6 K Ohm when the emitter
current is zero. If RB1 = 3.6 K Ohm, the intrinsic stand off ratio is
(a) n = 0.66 (b) n = 0.6
(c) n = 6.0 (d) n = 3.6
Q.4 A capacitor of 1µF initially charged to 10 V is connected across
an ideal inductor of 0.1 mH. The maximum current in the circuit is
(a) 0.5 A (b) 1 A
(c) 1.5 A (d) 2 A
Q.5 Silicon has a preference in IC technology because
(a) it is an indirect semiconductor
(b) it is a covalent semiconductor
(c) it is an elemental semiconductor
(d) of the availability of nature oxide SiO
Q.6 Three equal resistance of magnitude 5 Ohm each are connected
in delta. The resistance between any two pair of terminals of the
delta will be
(a) 5 Ohm (b) 5/3 Ohm
(c) 10/3 Ohm (d) 3/5 Ohm
Q.7 The R.M.S. value of a half wave rectified sinusoidal alternating
current with peak value Im is
(a) Im/1 (b) mI / 2
(c) mI /2 (d) mI 3
Q.8 For a series resonant circuit, at the half power points,which of the
following is true?
(a) Current is half of the current at resonance.
(b) Resistance is equal to the reactance.
(c) The impedance is half the impedance at the resonance.
(d) None of the above
Q.9 The lossless line of characterstics impedance 300 Ohm is
terminated in a pure resistance of 200 Ohm. The value of the
standing wave ratio is
(a) 1.5 (b) 0.67
(c) 1.0 (d) 1.25
Q.10 The transient current in lossless L-C circuit when excited from an
AC source is, sine wave
(a) Critically damped (b) Underdamped
(c) Overdamped (d) Undamped
Q.11 The values of L and C for a low pass filter with cut off frequency of
2.5 KHz and operating with a terminated load resistance of 450
Ohm are given by
(a) 57.3 mH; 0.283 µF (b) 28.66 µH; 0.14 µF
(c) 114.64 mH; 0.566 mF (d) 50.23 mH; 0.632 mF
Q.12 The driving point impedance with poles at ? = 0(zero) and ? = 8
(infinity) must have the
(a) s term in the denominator and an excess term in the numerator
(b) s term in the numerator and an excess term in the denominator
(c) s term in the numerator and equal number of terms in the
numerator and denominator
(d) s term in the denominator and equal number of terms in the
numerator and denominator
Q.13 A transmission line is terminated at its characterstic impedance.
The reflection coefficent is
(a) 1 (b) –1
(c) 0 (d) 8
Q.14 In the circuit shown below, the current through the 3/11O
resistance between terminals A & B is
(a) 4 Amps (b) 1 Amp
(c) 2 Amps (d) 5 Amps
Q.15 In a series RLC circuit operating below the resonant frequency
the current
(a) I leads Vs (b) I lags Vs
(c) I is in Phase with Vs (d) None of these
Q.16 An antenna has maximum radiation intensity Umax = 10 Watt/Sr
and average radiation intensity Uavg = 4.5 Watt/Sr. If the efficiency
of the antenna is given as ?r = 95%, the input power of the antenna
is
(a) 2.222 Watt (b) 12.11 Watt
(c) 55.55 Watt (d) 59.52 Watt
Q.17 In an airport, a receiving, antenna has a maximum dimension of 3
metres and operates at 100 MHz. An aircraft approaching the
airport is 1/2 Km away from the antenna . The aircraft is in the
region of the antenna.
(a) far-field (b) near-field
(c) close-field (d) Out of reach
Q.18 A lossless transmission line with characterstic impedance
500 Ohms is excited by a signal of voltage 10?0° volts at 1.2 MHz.
If the line is terminated by ZL at a distance 1 Km, the input
impedance s of the line for ZL = 8 (infinity) and ZL = 0 (zero) in
Ohm, respectively are
(a) +j8, 0 (b) –j8, 0
(c) 0, – j8 (d) 0, +j8
Q.19 If the electric field of a plane wave is represented by E = 10 yˆ
cos (109 t+30z) volt/m, assuming e is the dielectric constant, the
corresponding magnetic field H is
(a) – ˆy e 109/3 cos (109 t + 30z) Amp/m
(b) – ˆx e109/3 cos(109t + 30z) Amp/m
(c) – ˆz e 109/3 cos (109t + 30 z) Amp/m
(d) + ˆx e 109/3 cos (109t+30z) Amp/m
Q.20 A 50 Ohm lossless line connects a signal of 200 KHz to a load of
200 Ohm. If the load power in 100 mW, the value for voltage
minimum Vmin is
(a) ( 20)/4 (b) ( 10)/ 4
(c) ( 20)/ 2 (d) ( 10)/ 2
Q.21 Choose the correct statement
(a) Digital multimeters are built using current measuring elements,
while analog multimeters are built using voltage measuring units
(b) Digital multimeters are built using voltage measuring units,
while analog multimeters are built using current measuring units
(c) Both digital and analog multimeters are built using voltage
measuring units
(d) Both digital and analog multimeters are built using current
measuring units
Q.22 An analog voltmeter has a sensitivity of 10kO/volt. The
galvanometer used in constructing the instrument will produce a
full scale deflection when the current passed through it is
(a) 10 mA (b) 20 mA
(c) 50 mA (d) 100 µA
Q.23 The input versus output characteristics of a digital-to-analog
converter is given in the table below:
The converter is exhibiting
(a) offset error (b) statistical error
(c) linearity error (d) hysteresis error
Q.24 An optical fiber cable laid underground has developed a
discontinuity at a distance d from the source end. The fault can
be located using the instrument
(a) Optical spectrum Analyzer (OSA)
(b) Optical Time Domain Reflectometer (OTDR)
(c) Optical Power Meter (OPM)
(d) Laser Diffractometer (LD)
Q.25 Two sinusoidal signals of the same frequency are displayed on
a dual-trace oscilloscope. One complete cycle of each signal
covers 6 cm of the horizontal scale and the starting point of the
horizontal scale and the starting point of the two signals are
separated by 0.5 cm. The phase difference between the two
signals in degrees is
(a) 30 (b) 45
(c) 60 (d) 90
Q.26 Transient signals can be observed using
(a) storage oscillocope (b) sampling oscilloscope
(c) wave analyzer (d) spectrum analayzer
Q.27 The trace on an oscilloscope continually moves to the right of the
screen when
(a) the sweep is triggered.
(b) the sweep period is larger than the signal period.
(c) the sweep period is smaller than the signal period.
(d) there is no weep.
Q.28 In a dual trace oscilloscope, the display appears segmented when
(a) low frequency signals are observed in Alternate mode
(b) low frequency signals are observed in Chop mode
(c) high frequency signals are observed in Alternate mode
(d) high frequency signals are observed in Chop mode
Q.29 To distinguish between signals having very close values, we need
an instrument with
(a) high accuracy (b) high resolution
(c) high sensitivity (d) high linearity
Q.30 Match List-I (Instruments) with List-II (Measurement in which the
instrument is used) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Lock-in amplifier 1. Patient monitoring
B. Sampling oscillocope 2. Overcoming ground loop
problem
C. Isolation amplifier 3. Phase difference between
two signals
D. Strip-chart recorder 4. Signal recovery from noise
5. Observing very high
frequency signals
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 5 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 5 2 1
(d) 3 4 1 2
Q.31 A power diode has lightly doped n type substrate sandwiched
between heavily doped p and n regions
(a) to increase reverse breakdown voltage
(b) to reduce ohmic loss under forward bias
(c) to decrease switching time of the power diode
(d) to improve transient behaviour of the diode
Q.32 An ideal thyristor is driving an R-L load of impedance Z. Input AC
voltage is Vs = Vm sin ?mt. If thyristor is fired at an input phase
angle of 90°. What will be the output voltage and output current
across R-L load at the instant of firing?
(a) Output voltage is Vm and output current is Vm/Z
(b) Output voltage and output current are both zero
(c) Output voltage is zero and output current is delayed by an
angle 90°
(d) Output voltage is Vm and output current is zero
Q.33 In a regenerative braking, which of the following is generally true?
(a) Back e.m.f. in the motor exceeds the applied voltage
(b) Back e.m.f. is less than the applied voltage
(c) Kinetic energy of the motor is dissipated in a resistance
(d) Kinetic energy of the motor is dissipated through free wheeling
diode across the motor
Q.34 A step-down chopper, fed from a 120 volt DC source, operates a
DC motor whose armature e.m.f. and armature resistance are 100
volt and 0.5O respectively. With the magnitude control ratio 0.6,
the quadrant of operation DC motor is
(a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Fourth
Q.35 For IGBT, which of the following statement is true?
(a) Switching speed of IGBT is more than bipolar transistor
(b) IGBT is a current-controlled device
(c) On-state collector-emitter voltage is less than that of bipolar
junction transistor
(d) It combines voltage control features of MOSFET gate and
high power capability of bipolar transistor
Q.36 The semiconductor used for LEDs emitting in the visible range is
(a) GaAs (b) GaAlAs
(c) GalnAs (d) GaAsP
Q.37 The polar bonds existing in III-V compound semicondutor, may
be considered as equivalent to
(a) 1 ionic bond and 3 covalent bonds
(b) 1 ionic bond and 4 covalent bonds
(c) 2 ionic bonds and 2 covalent bonds
(d) 2 ionic bonds and 4 covalent bonds
Q.38 Which of the following pairs of crystal structure possesses the
same atomic packing density?
(a) simple cubic & body centred cubic
(b) body centred cubic & face centred cubic
(c) face centered cubic & hexagonal close packed
(d) body centred cubic & hexagonal close packed
Q.39 The colour bands on a carbon composition resistor occur in the
sequence: yellow, violet, yellow and silver. Its resistance is
(a) 470 KO ± 47 KO (b) 470 KO ± 23.5 %
(c) 47 KO ± 10 % (d) 47 KO ± 5 %
Q.40 The real & imaginary dielectric constants er' and er'' of 3 insulators
at 1 KHz and 50° C are listed below:
Material er' er''
Polycarbonate 2.47 0.003
PET 2.58 0.003
PEEK 2.24 0.003
At a given voltage, the lower power dissipation per unit
capacitance at 1 KHz can be obtained from
(a) Polycarbonate
(b) PET
(c) PEEK
(d) Insufficient information to answer
Q.41 A battery of 40 V and three capacitors of 1000 µF, 500 µF and 100
µF are all connected in (I) parallel and (II) series. The ratio of total
charge stored in case I to that in case II is approximately
(a) 3 : 64 (b) 64 : 3
(c) 160 : 3 (d) 104 : 5
Q.42 The magnetic flux f ( in Weber) linked with a coil at an instant of
time t(in second) is given by f(t) = 2t2 – 20t + 40. The induced
e.m.f. in the coil at the instant t =2 second is
(a) 22 V (b) 20 V
(c) 12 V (d) 10 V
Q.43 The speed of an audio cassette tape in a cassette player is 5cm/
sec. If the maximum frequency that needs to be recorded is 20
KHz, the minimum spatial wavelength on the tape is
(a) 40 µm (b) 25 µm
(c) 4 µm (d) 2.5 µm
Q.44 In a power transformer, the fundamental frequency of the hum
arising due to magnetostriction is
(a) equal to the line frequecy
(b) double the line frequency
(c) 4 times the line frequency
(d) not related to the line frequecny
Q.45 At a particular temperature and current density, the critical
magnetic field for a Type I superconductor is Bc and that for a
type II superconductor ranges from Bc1 to Bc2 keeping other
parameters unloaded. both superconductors are now subjected
to a magnetic field B that satisfies the conditions B>Bc and
Bc1 < q ="4q9," x ="d3" q ="–4q9," x ="dQ4="" q ="–4q9," x ="d3" q ="–4q9," x ="d4" gap =" 1.1" charge =" 1.6" a =" 0.99," ib =" lB" icbo =" 200" ic =" 2.5" ic =" 1.5mA" ic =" 3.5" ic =" 4.5" 1 =" A.Qn" 1 =" A.Qn+" 1 =" A.Qn" 1 =" A.Qn" k =" 0," n =" (no." mp =" 1.15." x =" P.Q" y="P.R" i0 =" X," i1=" 0," i2 =" X," i3 =" X" i0 =" 0," i1="1," i2 =" Y," i3 =" X" i0 =" X," i1 =" 1," i2 =" 0," i3 =" X" i0 =" X," i1 =" 0," i2 =" X," i3 =" Z" k =" 0." dt =" Ax(t)" a ="–2" b ="10" a ="0" b ="0" fc =" 0.16" d =" 0.5456" n =" 31.6"> 100 (b) > 500
(c) > 1000 (d) > 20000
Q.67 In an IF amplifier, the IF transformer is provided with tapping to
(a) increase the voltage gain
(b) increase the bandwidth of the resonance circuit
(c) increse the impedance offered by the resonance circuit to
the following cascaded amplifier
(d) increase the quality factor of the resonance circuit
Q.68 Consider the wave form V(t) = (1+m cos?mt) cos?ct. Show that, if
the demodulated wave is to follow the envelope of V(t), it is required
that at any time t0
(a) RC <=?m(msin?mt0 ) / (1+mcos?m t0) (b) (I/RC) >=
?m(msin?mt0 ) / (1+mcos?m t0 )
(c) 1/RC <=
1/(m?m)
(d) RC is very large
Q.69 QPSK system is superior to BPSK system because
(a) its bandwidth is higher than that of BPSK System
(b) interchannel interference in QPSK system is less then that in
BPSK system
(c) bandwidth of QPSK system is half of the bandwidth of BPSK
system
(d) in QPSK system inter-symbol interference is inproved
Q.70 A radio receiver is placed at one corner of a table and again
placed at some other corner of the same table. Loudspeaker output
is changed because
(a) image interference is reduced
(b) adjacent channel interference is increased
(c) of fading
(d) line of sight propagation is not utilized
Q.71 In time-division multiple access system, a traffic system on the
receiver side must receive the traffic burst addressed to it. For this
(a) transmitting frame acquisition is required
(b) proper synchronization of the timing of transmit frame is required
(c) frame efficiency should be higher
(d) synchronization is necessary to overcome the perturbations
of the satellite
Q.72 Earth coverage dish antenna is used in satellite system. It is
characterized by the fact that
(a) It is a narrow beam antenna
(b) It is Parabolic antenna
(c) it is sharply focused within a small area of the surface of the earth
(d) it is a wide angle antenna which covers a large area of the
surface of the earth
Q.73 In a Klystron amplifier, the RF voltage produces
(a) amplitude modulation (b) frequecny modulation
(c) phase modulation (d) velocity modulation
Q.74 For the proper operation of MASER at a frequency of 10 GHz, the
material used is
(a) Al2 O3 with slight doping of chromium
(b) Ti O2 with slight doping of iron
(c) Ti O2 with slight doping of chromium
(d) Al2 O3 with slight doping of iron
Q.75 A rectangular waveguide is 4.2 cm by 1.85 cm. The cut-off
frequency of the dominant mode through this waveguide is
(a) 3.57 GHz (b) 3.75 GHz
(c) 3.70 MHz (d) 3.57 MHz
Q.76 For an antenna to be frequency-independent, it should expand or
contract in proportion to the
(a) gain (b) directivity
(c) wavelength (d) impedance
Q.77 Suppose that data items, numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 come in
the input stream in this order. By using a queue, which of the
following rearrangement can be obtained in the output order ?
(a) 1 2 6 4 5 3 (b) 2 4 3 6 5 1
(c) 4 2 1 3 5 6 (d) 1 2 3 4 5 6
Q.78 We are told that the integers between 1 and 1000 are arranged in
a binary search trace with ‘<‘ as the ordering relation. Below are
four lists of vertices encountered as we search for the number
363. Which list cannot be produced by this search through a
binary search tree?
(a) 924, 220, 911, 244, 898, 248, 363
(b) 2, 252, 401, 398, 330, 344, 397, 363
(c) 925, 202, 911, 240, 912, 245, 363
(d) 2, 399, 387, 219, 266, 382, 381, 278, 363
Q.79 The number of 1’s in the binary representation of 13* 163 +11*16 + 2 is
(a) 8 (b) 7
(c) 9 (d) 12
Q.80 A disk has 500 bytes/sector,100 sectors / track, 20 heads and
1000 cylinders. Total capacity of disk is
(a) 1 GB (b) 100 MB
(c) 10 MB (d) 10 GB
Q.81 Suppose that the same clock signal is used to increment the
microprogram counter and to load the control register. Which of
the following asseration(s) is/are true?
1. Microinstruction execution time is at least two clock periods.
2. Microinstruction exceution time can be overlapped with
fetching the next microinstruction.
3. Unconditional branch microinstructions must necessarily take
longer than other types.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
Q.82 Some system architects do not find RISC instruction repertoire to
be cost-effective because it
(a) result in large increase in programme size
(b) result in complex structure of microcode
(c) has been observed that an average compiler does not employ
more than a limited subset of available instructions
(d) results in complex decoding of opcode filed resulting in longer
execution time
Q.83 A stake machine pushes operands on a stack and evaluates
binary operators by a pcs (i.e pop/compute/store) where the top
two operands are popped computation is performed and the result
is pushed onto stack. Evaluation of an expression (x* y) + (u* ?)
by Reverse Polish notation in a stack machine needs
(a) 4 push and 3 pcs instructions
(b) 6 push and 1 pcs instructions
(c) 4 push and 1 pcs instructions
(d) 5 push and 2 pcs instructions
Q.84 A dot matrix printer takes 3 msec to point a character, and 1 msec
for a space between two consecutive characters. If it prints 100
characters per line, its printing speed specifications in characters
per second (cps) and time to print a line of characters are
respectively
(a) 100 cps and 400 msec
(b) 2500 cps and 0.04 sec
(c) 250 cps and 40 msec
(d) 250 cps and 0.4 sec
Q.85 Consider the following program segment with 8085 microprocessor
LXI H 3600H
MOV A, M
HLT
The MOV instruction involves
(a) indirect addressing
(b) immediate addressing
(c) implicit addressing
(d) direct addressing
Q.86 To establish a communication between 8085 microprocessor and
8255 Programmable Peripheral Interface chip. the status of the
chip select input would be
(a) TRISTATE (b) HIGH
(b) LOW (d) DON’T CARE
Q.87 Which flag does not change by the execution of the instruction
DCR B in 8085 microprocessor ?
(a) Parity (b) Carry
(c) Zero (d) Sign
Q.88 Let the content of the memory location 3501H be 72H. Now
consider the following program with 8085 microprocessor
LDA 3501H
CMA
STA 3502H
HLT
The content of the memory location 3502H after execution of
programme will be
(a) 27H (b) D8H
(c) 8DH (d) 72H
Q.89 Given the program segment below, how many times will the
instruction LP: JNZ REP be executed?
MVI H, 02H
MVI L, 05H
REP : DCR L
LP : JNZ REP
: DCR H
: JNZ REP
...................
(a) 10 (b) 260
(c) 510 (d) 7
Q.90 What addressing mode is used in the instruction RET?
(a) Direct (b) Immediate
(c) Implicit (d) Register-indirect
Q.91 A one-byte instruction is executed in the 8085 microprocessor
by the following steps:
((SP) –1) ? (PCH)
((SP) –2) ? (PCL)
((SP) ? ((SP)-2)
(PC) ? 0008H
The corresponding instruction is
(a) JMP 0008H (b) PUSH PSW
(c) CALL 0008 H (d) RST 1
Q.92 The zero flag of 8085 microprocessor is to be set keeping the
content of the accumulator unchanged. Which instruction is to
be used?
(a) MOV A,A (b) ANI 00H
(c) XRA A (d) CMP A
Q.93 In class - A power amplifier, the collector dissipation is maximum
when
(a) no signal is present
(b) signal swing is maximum
(c) signal swing is (1/1.414) of its maximum
(d) none of the above
Q.94 If cut-in voltage and forward resistance of each diode (in the
adjoining figure) are 0.7 V and 1 ohm respectively, the current
through the 48 ohm resistor is
8 V
+ 48 O
–
(a) 132 mA (b) 160 mA
(c) 0 mA (a) (1/6) A
Q.95 The lower cut-off frequency of the transistor stage in the adjoining
figure is
Vcc
3 K
10 µF
V0
2 K
(a) 7.95 Hz (b) 13.25 Hz
(c) 5.30 Hz (d) 3.18 Hz
Q.96 In the adjoining current mirror circuit if Q1 and Q2 are identical
and base currents are not neglected, then which of the following
is true ?
I1 I2
Q1 Q2
(a) I2 = I1 (b) I2 = ßl1
(c) I2 = [(ß/(ß +2)]I1 (d) I2 = [(ß + 2)/ß]I1
Q.97 If rectangular input is applied to the adjoining circuit, it produces
R
C
I/P O/P –
+
(a) square output (b) spike output
(c) sinusoidal output (d) none of the above
Q.98 In an oscillator, if amplifier gain (A) without feedback is (1 + RF/
R1) and gain (ß) of the feedback network is 1/{3 + j(?Rc–1/?Rc)},
then which of the following is true ?
(a) RF = 2R1 (b) RF = R1
(a) |ß| = 3 (b) |ß| = 1/3
Wednesday, April 22, 2009
BSNL JTO- 2005
1. When a piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 800 K then the resistance of -
a) Each of them increases
b) Each of them decreases
c) Copper increases and germanium decreases
d) Copper decreases and germanium increases
2. When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instrument can be used -
a) VTVM
b) Cathode ray oscilloscope
c) Moving iron voltmeter
d) Digital multimeter
3. When a sample of germanium and silicon having same impurity density are kept at room temperature then –
a) Both will have equal value of resistivity
b) Both will have equal value negative resistivity
c) Resistivity of germanium will be higher than that of silicon
d) Resistivity of silicon will be higher than that of germanium
4. When an RC driving point impedance function has zeros at s= -2 and s=-5 then the admissible poles for the function would be –
a) s = 0; s = -6
b) s = 0; s = -3
c) s = 0; s = -1
d) s = -3; s = -4
5. For the n-type semiconductor with n = Np and p = , the hole concentration will fall below the intrinsic value because some of the holes –
a) drop back to acceptor impurity states
b) drop to donor impurity states
c) Virtually leave the crystal
d) recombine with the electrons
6. The location of lighting arrestor is –
a) Near the transformer
b) Near the circuit breaker
c) Away from the transformer
d) None
7. Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is –
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b
8. Telemetering is a method of –
a) Counting pulses sent over long distances
b) Transmitting pictures from one place to another
c) Transmitting information concerning a process over a distance
d) None
9. When the gauge factor of a strain gauge is 2, stress is 1050 kg/cm2, Y = 2.1´ 106 kg/cm2 and R is 100 ohms then the value of DR will be -
a) 2W
b) 3W
c) 4W
d) 1W
10. As the drain voltage is increased for a junction FET in the pinch off region then the drain current –
a) Becomes zero
b) Abruptly decreases
c) Abruptly increases
d) Remains constant
11. One of the following, which is not a transducer in the true sense, is –
a) Thermocouple
b) Piezoelectric pick up
c) Photo-Voltaic cell
d) LCD
12. When a transistor is required to match a 100W signal source with a high impedance output circuit then the connection that would be used is –
a) Common base
b) Common collector
c) Common emitter
d) Emitter follower
13. In a JFET gates are always –
a) forward biased
b) reverse biased
c) unbiased
d) none
14.The main factor which differentiate a DE MOSFET from an E only MOSFET is the absence of –
a) insulated gate
b) electrons
c) channel
d) P-N junction
15. An SCR conducts appreciable current when –
a) Anode and gate are both negative with respect to cathode
b) Anode and gate are both positive with respect to cathode
c) Anode is negative and gate is positive with respect to cathode
d) Gate is negative and anode is positive with respect to cathode
16. Silicon is not suitable for fabrication of light emitting diodes because it is -
a) An indirect band gap semiconductor
b) A direct band gap semiconductor
c) A wide band gap semiconductor
d) A narrow band gap semiconductor
17. An average responding rectifier type electronic ac voltmeter has its scale calibrated in terms of the rms value of a sine wave, when a square wave voltage of peak magnitude 100V is measured using this voltmeter then the reading indicated by the meter, will be –
a) 111V
b) 100V
c) 90.09V
d) 70.7V
18. When a four terminal T network is inserted between a source and load resistance as shown in figure then the resistance seen by the source remain the same with or without the four terminal block when R is –
a) 5W
b) 10 W
c) 15 W
d) 20 W
19. In the ac bridge shown in the given figure, the value of Rx and Cx at balance will be
20. Which one of the following conditions for Z parameters would hold for a two port network containing linear bilateral passive circuit elements –
a) Z11 = Z22
b) Z12Z21 = Z11Z22
c) Z11Z12 = Z22Z21
d) Z12 = Z21
21. When the transmission parameters of the following network are A = C = 1, B = 2 and D = 3 then the value of Zin is
22. The value of G12 or v2/v1 for the circuit shown in the fig. is -
23. While calculating Rth, constant current sources in the circuit are –
a) replaced by opens
b) replaced by ’shorts’
c) treated in parallel with other voltage sources
d) converted into equivalent voltage sources
24. Maxwell’s loop current method of solving electrical networks –
a) uses branch currents
b) utilizes kirchhoff’s voltage law
c) is confined to single-loop circuits
d) is a network reduction method
25. A transmission line of characteristic impedance Z0 = 50 ohms, phase velocity Vp = 2 x 108 m/s and length l = 1m is terminated by a load ZL= ( 30 – j 40 ) ohms. The input impedance of the line for a frequency of 100 MHz will be
a)(30 + j40 ) ohms
b)( 30 – j40 ) ohms
c)(50 + j40 ) ohms
d)(50 – j40 ) ohms
26. For an elliptically polarized wave incident on the interface of a dielectric at the Brewster angle then the reflected wave will be-
a) Elliptically polarized
b) Linearly polarized
c) Right circularly polarized
d) Left circularly polarized
27. A yagi antenna has a driven antenna-
a) Only
b) With a reflector
c) With one or more directors
d) With a reflector and one or more directors
28. The number of lobes on each side of a 3l resonant antenna is –
a) 3
b) 6
c) 2
d) 1
29. The electric field intensity of a Hertizian dipole at a remote point varies as -
Radiation resistance of a half wave folded dipole is -
a) 72 W
b) 144W
c) 288 W
d) 216W
30. When a carrier wave is modulated at 100% it’s power is increased by -
a)100%
b)150 %
c)50%
d)0%
31. On a clear sky day, the atmospheric radio noise is strongest -
a) During morning hours
b) Around mid-day
c) During nights
d) In the afternoon
32. TV broadcasting system in India is as per CCIR -
a) System B
b) System I
c) System M
d) System X
33. For the safety measurement of the internal resistance of a 25-0-25 mA meter, a laboratory multimeter whose sensitivity is equal to –
a) 1k ohm/volt can be used
b) 10 k ohm/volt can be used
c) 100 k ohm/volt can be used
d) 200 k ohm/volt can be used
34. In order to measure moisture in wood the most suitable method is –
a) Electrical conduction
b) Electrical – capacitive
c) Absorption of radiation
d) Equilirium- moisture vs humidity
35. The flow rate of electrically conducting liquid without any suspended particle cannot be measured by –
a) turbine flow meters
b) electromagnetic flow meters
c) ultrasonic flow meters
d) thermistor based heat loss flow meters
36.The most useful transducer for displacement sensing with excellent sensitivity, linearity and resolution is –
a) an incremental encoder
b) an abosolute encoder
c) LVDT
d) a strain gauge
37. When variable reluctance type tachometer has 150 teeth on the rotor & the counter records 13,500 pulses per second then the rotational speed will be–
a) 4800 rpm
b) 5400 rpm
c) 6000 rpm
d) 7200 rpm.
38. On a voltage scale, zero dB m in a 600-ohm system could refer to –
a) 1.732 V
b) 1.0 V
c) 0.7746 V
d) 0.5V
39. One of the following devices which is required in addition in order to measure pressure using LVDT is-
a) strain gauge
b) pitot tube
c) Bourden tube
d) Rotameter
40. It is required to measure temperature in the range of 13000 C to 15000 c) The most suitable thermocouple to be used as a transducer would be –
a) chromel - constantan
b) Iron - constantan
c) chromel - alumel
d) platinum- rhodium
41. In a CSI if frequency of output voltage is f Hz, then frequency of input voltage to CSI is-
a) f
b) 2 f
c) f/2
d) 3 f
42. Identify the type of chipper in the given circuit
a) Type A chopper
b) Type B chopper
c) Type C chopper
d) Type D chopper
43. Maximum value of charging resistance in an UJT is associated with-
a) peak point
b) valley point
c) any point between peak and valley
d) after the valley point
44. Thyristor A has rated gate current of 2A and thyristor B a rated gate current of 100 mA-
a) A is a GTO and B is a conventional SCR
b) B is a GTO and A is a conventional SCR
c) B may operate as a transistor
d) none of the above
45. In a 3 phase full converter, the output voltage during overlap is equal to-
a) zero
b) source voltage
c) source voltage minus the inductance drop
d) average value of the conducting phase voltages
46. Mark old the correct statement for Cycloconverters-
a) step-down Cycloconverter (CC) works on natural commutation
b) step up CC requires no forced commutation
c) load commutated CC works on line commutation
d) none of the above
47. In a 3 phase full converter if load current is I and ripple free, then average thyristor current is-
48. In the RF amplifier stage cascade (CE-CB) amplifier is used because it gives-
a) Large voltage gain
b) Low output impedance
c) Large isolation between the input and the output
d) None of the above
49. Silicon diode is less suited for low voltage rectifier operation because-
a) it can withstand high temperature
b) ensures low PIV of the diodes
c) ensures lower values of capacitance in the filter
d) reduces ripple content
50. An amplifier of class A is that in which -
a) Base is biased to cut – off
b) Ic flows most of the time
c) Ie flows all the time
d) Vc often raises to Vcc
51. A transistor is in active region when-
a) IB = bIC
b) IC=bIB
c) IC=IE
d) IC=IB
52. For coupling purposes in RF amplifier a buffer amplifier is used because it provides-
a) Maximum loading and minimum mismatch
b) Minimum loading and minimum mismatch
c) Maximum loading and maximum mismatch
d) Minimum loading and maximum mismatch
53. A transistor has CE parameter as hie = 10kW, hre =20 x 10-4 , hse = 100, hoe = 25 ms. The hib for this transistor will be-
a) 100 W
b) 99.01 W
c) 5m W
d) 101kW
54. An FM radio receiver is tuned to a 90.6 MHz broadcast station. It will receive an image frequency of -
a) 110 MHz
b) 112 Hz
c) 114 MHz
d) 120 MHz
55. In the given fig RL is shorted out, then VCE will become-
a) OV
b) VCC – IBRB
c) Equal to VCC
d) None of the above
56. See the circuit shown and choose the correct option –
a) Only red will glow
b) Only green will glow
c) Both red and green will glow
d) Neither red nor green will glow
57. A dc to dc converter having an efficiency of 80% is delivering 16W to a load) If the converter is generating an output of 200V from an input source of 20V, then the current drawn from the source will be –
a) 0.1A
b) 0.5A
c) 1.0A
d) 10.0A
58. A transistor is operated as a non-saturated switch to eliminate –
a) storage time
b) turn – off time
c) turn – on time
d) delay time
59. The output Y of the circuit in the given figure is –
a) (A + B)C + DE
b) AB + C(D + E)
c) (A + B)C + D + E
d) (AB + C) . DE
60. Rotors used in a two-phase ac servomotor is –
a) solid iron motor
b) squirrel cage rotor
c) drag cup rotor
d) both b and c
61. Major advantage of TWT over a klystron lies in its –
a) higher bandwidth
b) higher output
c) higher frequency
d) higher gain
62. The op-map circuit shown in the given figure can be used for –
a) addition
b) subtraction
c) both addition and subtraction
d) multiplication
63. The Boolean expression for the shaded area in the given Venn diagram is –
64. A lag compensator is basically a –
a) high pass filter
b) band pass filter
c) low pass filter
d) band elimination filter
65. Transfer function T (S) of the system in the given fig is-
66. The overall transfer function for a unity feedback system is 4/(S2+4S+4) Mark the correct statement regarding this system
1. Position error constant kp for the system is 4
2. The system type one.
3. The velocity error constant kv for the system is finite.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes
a) 1,2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3
67. If the rotor’s resistance and reactant’s are respectively R and X1 its length and diameter are L and D for two phase a) c) servomotor, then-
In a PID controllers the transfer function G(s) is-
Transfer function can be approximated by the system- The transfer function of an amplifier is given by The high 3 db frequency of an amplifier will be approximately-
a) 5850 kHz
b) 585 kHz
c) 5850 Hz
d) 585 Hz
68. The output signals amplitudes for 1’s and 0’s in an ADM transmission systems are –
a) Fixed and the repetition rate is also fixed
b) Fixed but the repetition rate is variable
c) Variable and the repetition rate is also variable
d) Variable but the repetition rate is fixed
69. Microwave link repeaters are typically 50km apart –
a) Because of atmospheric attenuation
b) Because of Output tube power limitations
c) Because of the earth’s curvature
d) To ensure that the applied ac voltage is not excessive
70. The amplifier inserted at intervals to amplify the signal and compensate for transmission loss on the cable are called-
a) line amplifier
b) equalizing amplifiers
c) compradors
d) repeaters.
71. Diversity reception in used to-
a) increase receiver sensitivity
b) improve receiver selectivity
c) overcome degrading effect of fading
d) overcome degrading effect of receiver detuning
72. Mark out transferred electron device in the following-
a) BARITT dived
b) IMPATT dived
c) Gunn divde
d) Step recovery diode
73. In the output of a normal monochrome receiver video detector voltages, which are not found, are -
a) syne
b) video
c) sweep
d) sound
74. The HV anode supply for the picture tube of TV receiver is generated in the-
a) mains transformer
b) vertical output stage
c) horizontal output stage
d) horizontal deflection oscillator
75. In antenna measurements using two aperture antennas of dimensions D1 and D2 , minimum separation between the two should be (x is free space wavelength of radiation uses) The frquency range for satellite broad casting is –
Answer: (D12+D22)/x
The frquency range for satellite broad casting is
a) 30 MHz - 300MHz
b) 30 MHz - 3 GHz
c) 3 GHz - 30 GHz
d) 30 GHz - 300 GHz
76. Iris is used to –
a) Over come power loss
b) Over come bending effect
c) Over come mismatch error
d) Over come twist effect
77. In schotty barrier diode current flows because of –
a) Majority carriers
b) Minority carriers
c) Majority and minority carriers
d) None
78. Which antennas are used in microwave communication –
a) long wave antennas
b) Rhombic antennas
c) Parabolaidal antennas
d) All of above
79. Among translator & time of sight system capacity –
a) Of translator is more
b) Of line of sight is more
c) Having equal capacity
d) No relation such as
80. No of T-state required for memory read or write operation-
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6
81. In data transfer operation which flag get affected-
a) 3140 flog.
b) carry flog
c) sign flog.
d) none
82. The storage and retrieval of data on stacks should follow sequence-
a) last in first out
b) first in first out
c) random in random out
d) none
83. While executing program microprocessor checks INTR line clearing-
a) each instruction
b) after interval of two instruction
c) after a subroutine
d) at the end of program.
84. In which error check technique of data communication 2’s complement of all bytes of data is transmitted with data-
a) Even parity
b) odd parity
c) check scans
d) cyclic redundancy
85. Program execution hierarchy decides which operator-
a) is most important
b) is used first
c) is fastest
d) operators on largest number
86. (375)10 = (—-)8
a) 550
b) 557
c) 567
d) 577
87. To obtain 2048 8 memory using 128 8 memory chip how many IC required-
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
88. A Decimal no. 17 can be converted in binary, the binary no. will be.-
a) 10001
b) 01110
c)00111
d) 11100
89. Is the Universal logic gate-
a) AND
b) OR
c) NAND
d) X-OR
90. A monostable state in multivibrator means-
a) which returns itself to its single stable state
b) the state used only once in circuit
c) the state of circuit can not get changed
d) the state of circuit always changing
91. For designing binary counter which flip flop is preferred -
a) T FF
b) SR FF
c) D FF
d) JKFF
92. His handwriting was not —– so I could not read his note –
a) attractive
b) eligible
c) clear
d) legible
93. They started to —– people into the theatre only at six -
a) enter
b) admit
c) follow
d) accept
94. I told him to buy things that are lasting (Give the appropriate synonym of the underlined word).
a) ending
b) ordinary
c) durable
d) cheap
95. Give the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word ‘evident’-
a) doubtful
b) unimportant
c) disagreed
d) understood
96. I expressed by disagreement —— him on that issue-
a) between
b) with
c) about
d) for
97. ‘Sugarbowl’ of the world is -
a) India
b) Cuba
c) Brazil
d) USA
98. Palk strait separates-
a) India and Srilanka
b) India and Burma
c) Britain and France
d) Malaysia and Sumatra
99. The minimum number of atoms in a molecule of an element are-
a) 1
b) 5
c) 2
d) 10
100. Tides in the sea are caused by-
a) Effect of sun
b) Effect of moon
c) combined effect of moon and sun
d) Gravitational, centrifugal and centripetal forces
101.The Bar council of India decided to close over law colleges across the country for their failure to maintain minimum teaching standard) There number is
a) 140
b) 200
c) 150
d) 100
102. Aswan Dam is located in-
a) Egypt
b) Libya
c) Sudan
d) Iran
103. Ghana Birds sanctuary is in the state of -
a)Rajasthan
b)Madhya Pradesh
c)Uttar Pradesh
d)Maharashtra
104. Dry ice is-
a) Frozen carbon monoxide
b) Frozen carbon dioxide
c) Frozen ammonia
d) None of these
105. East flower river of India is -
a) Cauvery
b) sone
c) Narmada
d) Tapti
106. The total length of the great wall of China is –
a) 1,400 miles
b) 1,500 miles
c) 1,300 miles
d) 1,400 miles
107. Deficiency of vitamin C may result in-
a) beriberi
b) night blindness
c) dermatitis
d) Scurvy
108. Bharat Shah a film financer was granted bail by Supreme Court after a
period of –
a) 11 months
b) 2 years
c) 18 months
d) 15 months
109. Indian local time is based on-
a) 800 E longitude
b) E longitude
c) 1100 E longitude
d) 250 E longitude
110.Which one is a good preservative of food?
a) Spirit
b) Formaldehyde
c) Sugar
a) Each of them increases
b) Each of them decreases
c) Copper increases and germanium decreases
d) Copper decreases and germanium increases
2. When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instrument can be used -
a) VTVM
b) Cathode ray oscilloscope
c) Moving iron voltmeter
d) Digital multimeter
3. When a sample of germanium and silicon having same impurity density are kept at room temperature then –
a) Both will have equal value of resistivity
b) Both will have equal value negative resistivity
c) Resistivity of germanium will be higher than that of silicon
d) Resistivity of silicon will be higher than that of germanium
4. When an RC driving point impedance function has zeros at s= -2 and s=-5 then the admissible poles for the function would be –
a) s = 0; s = -6
b) s = 0; s = -3
c) s = 0; s = -1
d) s = -3; s = -4
5. For the n-type semiconductor with n = Np and p = , the hole concentration will fall below the intrinsic value because some of the holes –
a) drop back to acceptor impurity states
b) drop to donor impurity states
c) Virtually leave the crystal
d) recombine with the electrons
6. The location of lighting arrestor is –
a) Near the transformer
b) Near the circuit breaker
c) Away from the transformer
d) None
7. Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is –
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b
8. Telemetering is a method of –
a) Counting pulses sent over long distances
b) Transmitting pictures from one place to another
c) Transmitting information concerning a process over a distance
d) None
9. When the gauge factor of a strain gauge is 2, stress is 1050 kg/cm2, Y = 2.1´ 106 kg/cm2 and R is 100 ohms then the value of DR will be -
a) 2W
b) 3W
c) 4W
d) 1W
10. As the drain voltage is increased for a junction FET in the pinch off region then the drain current –
a) Becomes zero
b) Abruptly decreases
c) Abruptly increases
d) Remains constant
11. One of the following, which is not a transducer in the true sense, is –
a) Thermocouple
b) Piezoelectric pick up
c) Photo-Voltaic cell
d) LCD
12. When a transistor is required to match a 100W signal source with a high impedance output circuit then the connection that would be used is –
a) Common base
b) Common collector
c) Common emitter
d) Emitter follower
13. In a JFET gates are always –
a) forward biased
b) reverse biased
c) unbiased
d) none
14.The main factor which differentiate a DE MOSFET from an E only MOSFET is the absence of –
a) insulated gate
b) electrons
c) channel
d) P-N junction
15. An SCR conducts appreciable current when –
a) Anode and gate are both negative with respect to cathode
b) Anode and gate are both positive with respect to cathode
c) Anode is negative and gate is positive with respect to cathode
d) Gate is negative and anode is positive with respect to cathode
16. Silicon is not suitable for fabrication of light emitting diodes because it is -
a) An indirect band gap semiconductor
b) A direct band gap semiconductor
c) A wide band gap semiconductor
d) A narrow band gap semiconductor
17. An average responding rectifier type electronic ac voltmeter has its scale calibrated in terms of the rms value of a sine wave, when a square wave voltage of peak magnitude 100V is measured using this voltmeter then the reading indicated by the meter, will be –
a) 111V
b) 100V
c) 90.09V
d) 70.7V
18. When a four terminal T network is inserted between a source and load resistance as shown in figure then the resistance seen by the source remain the same with or without the four terminal block when R is –
a) 5W
b) 10 W
c) 15 W
d) 20 W
19. In the ac bridge shown in the given figure, the value of Rx and Cx at balance will be
20. Which one of the following conditions for Z parameters would hold for a two port network containing linear bilateral passive circuit elements –
a) Z11 = Z22
b) Z12Z21 = Z11Z22
c) Z11Z12 = Z22Z21
d) Z12 = Z21
21. When the transmission parameters of the following network are A = C = 1, B = 2 and D = 3 then the value of Zin is
22. The value of G12 or v2/v1 for the circuit shown in the fig. is -
23. While calculating Rth, constant current sources in the circuit are –
a) replaced by opens
b) replaced by ’shorts’
c) treated in parallel with other voltage sources
d) converted into equivalent voltage sources
24. Maxwell’s loop current method of solving electrical networks –
a) uses branch currents
b) utilizes kirchhoff’s voltage law
c) is confined to single-loop circuits
d) is a network reduction method
25. A transmission line of characteristic impedance Z0 = 50 ohms, phase velocity Vp = 2 x 108 m/s and length l = 1m is terminated by a load ZL= ( 30 – j 40 ) ohms. The input impedance of the line for a frequency of 100 MHz will be
a)(30 + j40 ) ohms
b)( 30 – j40 ) ohms
c)(50 + j40 ) ohms
d)(50 – j40 ) ohms
26. For an elliptically polarized wave incident on the interface of a dielectric at the Brewster angle then the reflected wave will be-
a) Elliptically polarized
b) Linearly polarized
c) Right circularly polarized
d) Left circularly polarized
27. A yagi antenna has a driven antenna-
a) Only
b) With a reflector
c) With one or more directors
d) With a reflector and one or more directors
28. The number of lobes on each side of a 3l resonant antenna is –
a) 3
b) 6
c) 2
d) 1
29. The electric field intensity of a Hertizian dipole at a remote point varies as -
Radiation resistance of a half wave folded dipole is -
a) 72 W
b) 144W
c) 288 W
d) 216W
30. When a carrier wave is modulated at 100% it’s power is increased by -
a)100%
b)150 %
c)50%
d)0%
31. On a clear sky day, the atmospheric radio noise is strongest -
a) During morning hours
b) Around mid-day
c) During nights
d) In the afternoon
32. TV broadcasting system in India is as per CCIR -
a) System B
b) System I
c) System M
d) System X
33. For the safety measurement of the internal resistance of a 25-0-25 mA meter, a laboratory multimeter whose sensitivity is equal to –
a) 1k ohm/volt can be used
b) 10 k ohm/volt can be used
c) 100 k ohm/volt can be used
d) 200 k ohm/volt can be used
34. In order to measure moisture in wood the most suitable method is –
a) Electrical conduction
b) Electrical – capacitive
c) Absorption of radiation
d) Equilirium- moisture vs humidity
35. The flow rate of electrically conducting liquid without any suspended particle cannot be measured by –
a) turbine flow meters
b) electromagnetic flow meters
c) ultrasonic flow meters
d) thermistor based heat loss flow meters
36.The most useful transducer for displacement sensing with excellent sensitivity, linearity and resolution is –
a) an incremental encoder
b) an abosolute encoder
c) LVDT
d) a strain gauge
37. When variable reluctance type tachometer has 150 teeth on the rotor & the counter records 13,500 pulses per second then the rotational speed will be–
a) 4800 rpm
b) 5400 rpm
c) 6000 rpm
d) 7200 rpm.
38. On a voltage scale, zero dB m in a 600-ohm system could refer to –
a) 1.732 V
b) 1.0 V
c) 0.7746 V
d) 0.5V
39. One of the following devices which is required in addition in order to measure pressure using LVDT is-
a) strain gauge
b) pitot tube
c) Bourden tube
d) Rotameter
40. It is required to measure temperature in the range of 13000 C to 15000 c) The most suitable thermocouple to be used as a transducer would be –
a) chromel - constantan
b) Iron - constantan
c) chromel - alumel
d) platinum- rhodium
41. In a CSI if frequency of output voltage is f Hz, then frequency of input voltage to CSI is-
a) f
b) 2 f
c) f/2
d) 3 f
42. Identify the type of chipper in the given circuit
a) Type A chopper
b) Type B chopper
c) Type C chopper
d) Type D chopper
43. Maximum value of charging resistance in an UJT is associated with-
a) peak point
b) valley point
c) any point between peak and valley
d) after the valley point
44. Thyristor A has rated gate current of 2A and thyristor B a rated gate current of 100 mA-
a) A is a GTO and B is a conventional SCR
b) B is a GTO and A is a conventional SCR
c) B may operate as a transistor
d) none of the above
45. In a 3 phase full converter, the output voltage during overlap is equal to-
a) zero
b) source voltage
c) source voltage minus the inductance drop
d) average value of the conducting phase voltages
46. Mark old the correct statement for Cycloconverters-
a) step-down Cycloconverter (CC) works on natural commutation
b) step up CC requires no forced commutation
c) load commutated CC works on line commutation
d) none of the above
47. In a 3 phase full converter if load current is I and ripple free, then average thyristor current is-
48. In the RF amplifier stage cascade (CE-CB) amplifier is used because it gives-
a) Large voltage gain
b) Low output impedance
c) Large isolation between the input and the output
d) None of the above
49. Silicon diode is less suited for low voltage rectifier operation because-
a) it can withstand high temperature
b) ensures low PIV of the diodes
c) ensures lower values of capacitance in the filter
d) reduces ripple content
50. An amplifier of class A is that in which -
a) Base is biased to cut – off
b) Ic flows most of the time
c) Ie flows all the time
d) Vc often raises to Vcc
51. A transistor is in active region when-
a) IB = bIC
b) IC=bIB
c) IC=IE
d) IC=IB
52. For coupling purposes in RF amplifier a buffer amplifier is used because it provides-
a) Maximum loading and minimum mismatch
b) Minimum loading and minimum mismatch
c) Maximum loading and maximum mismatch
d) Minimum loading and maximum mismatch
53. A transistor has CE parameter as hie = 10kW, hre =20 x 10-4 , hse = 100, hoe = 25 ms. The hib for this transistor will be-
a) 100 W
b) 99.01 W
c) 5m W
d) 101kW
54. An FM radio receiver is tuned to a 90.6 MHz broadcast station. It will receive an image frequency of -
a) 110 MHz
b) 112 Hz
c) 114 MHz
d) 120 MHz
55. In the given fig RL is shorted out, then VCE will become-
a) OV
b) VCC – IBRB
c) Equal to VCC
d) None of the above
56. See the circuit shown and choose the correct option –
a) Only red will glow
b) Only green will glow
c) Both red and green will glow
d) Neither red nor green will glow
57. A dc to dc converter having an efficiency of 80% is delivering 16W to a load) If the converter is generating an output of 200V from an input source of 20V, then the current drawn from the source will be –
a) 0.1A
b) 0.5A
c) 1.0A
d) 10.0A
58. A transistor is operated as a non-saturated switch to eliminate –
a) storage time
b) turn – off time
c) turn – on time
d) delay time
59. The output Y of the circuit in the given figure is –
a) (A + B)C + DE
b) AB + C(D + E)
c) (A + B)C + D + E
d) (AB + C) . DE
60. Rotors used in a two-phase ac servomotor is –
a) solid iron motor
b) squirrel cage rotor
c) drag cup rotor
d) both b and c
61. Major advantage of TWT over a klystron lies in its –
a) higher bandwidth
b) higher output
c) higher frequency
d) higher gain
62. The op-map circuit shown in the given figure can be used for –
a) addition
b) subtraction
c) both addition and subtraction
d) multiplication
63. The Boolean expression for the shaded area in the given Venn diagram is –
64. A lag compensator is basically a –
a) high pass filter
b) band pass filter
c) low pass filter
d) band elimination filter
65. Transfer function T (S) of the system in the given fig is-
66. The overall transfer function for a unity feedback system is 4/(S2+4S+4) Mark the correct statement regarding this system
1. Position error constant kp for the system is 4
2. The system type one.
3. The velocity error constant kv for the system is finite.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes
a) 1,2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3
67. If the rotor’s resistance and reactant’s are respectively R and X1 its length and diameter are L and D for two phase a) c) servomotor, then-
In a PID controllers the transfer function G(s) is-
Transfer function can be approximated by the system- The transfer function of an amplifier is given by The high 3 db frequency of an amplifier will be approximately-
a) 5850 kHz
b) 585 kHz
c) 5850 Hz
d) 585 Hz
68. The output signals amplitudes for 1’s and 0’s in an ADM transmission systems are –
a) Fixed and the repetition rate is also fixed
b) Fixed but the repetition rate is variable
c) Variable and the repetition rate is also variable
d) Variable but the repetition rate is fixed
69. Microwave link repeaters are typically 50km apart –
a) Because of atmospheric attenuation
b) Because of Output tube power limitations
c) Because of the earth’s curvature
d) To ensure that the applied ac voltage is not excessive
70. The amplifier inserted at intervals to amplify the signal and compensate for transmission loss on the cable are called-
a) line amplifier
b) equalizing amplifiers
c) compradors
d) repeaters.
71. Diversity reception in used to-
a) increase receiver sensitivity
b) improve receiver selectivity
c) overcome degrading effect of fading
d) overcome degrading effect of receiver detuning
72. Mark out transferred electron device in the following-
a) BARITT dived
b) IMPATT dived
c) Gunn divde
d) Step recovery diode
73. In the output of a normal monochrome receiver video detector voltages, which are not found, are -
a) syne
b) video
c) sweep
d) sound
74. The HV anode supply for the picture tube of TV receiver is generated in the-
a) mains transformer
b) vertical output stage
c) horizontal output stage
d) horizontal deflection oscillator
75. In antenna measurements using two aperture antennas of dimensions D1 and D2 , minimum separation between the two should be (x is free space wavelength of radiation uses) The frquency range for satellite broad casting is –
Answer: (D12+D22)/x
The frquency range for satellite broad casting is
a) 30 MHz - 300MHz
b) 30 MHz - 3 GHz
c) 3 GHz - 30 GHz
d) 30 GHz - 300 GHz
76. Iris is used to –
a) Over come power loss
b) Over come bending effect
c) Over come mismatch error
d) Over come twist effect
77. In schotty barrier diode current flows because of –
a) Majority carriers
b) Minority carriers
c) Majority and minority carriers
d) None
78. Which antennas are used in microwave communication –
a) long wave antennas
b) Rhombic antennas
c) Parabolaidal antennas
d) All of above
79. Among translator & time of sight system capacity –
a) Of translator is more
b) Of line of sight is more
c) Having equal capacity
d) No relation such as
80. No of T-state required for memory read or write operation-
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6
81. In data transfer operation which flag get affected-
a) 3140 flog.
b) carry flog
c) sign flog.
d) none
82. The storage and retrieval of data on stacks should follow sequence-
a) last in first out
b) first in first out
c) random in random out
d) none
83. While executing program microprocessor checks INTR line clearing-
a) each instruction
b) after interval of two instruction
c) after a subroutine
d) at the end of program.
84. In which error check technique of data communication 2’s complement of all bytes of data is transmitted with data-
a) Even parity
b) odd parity
c) check scans
d) cyclic redundancy
85. Program execution hierarchy decides which operator-
a) is most important
b) is used first
c) is fastest
d) operators on largest number
86. (375)10 = (—-)8
a) 550
b) 557
c) 567
d) 577
87. To obtain 2048 8 memory using 128 8 memory chip how many IC required-
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16
88. A Decimal no. 17 can be converted in binary, the binary no. will be.-
a) 10001
b) 01110
c)00111
d) 11100
89. Is the Universal logic gate-
a) AND
b) OR
c) NAND
d) X-OR
90. A monostable state in multivibrator means-
a) which returns itself to its single stable state
b) the state used only once in circuit
c) the state of circuit can not get changed
d) the state of circuit always changing
91. For designing binary counter which flip flop is preferred -
a) T FF
b) SR FF
c) D FF
d) JKFF
92. His handwriting was not —– so I could not read his note –
a) attractive
b) eligible
c) clear
d) legible
93. They started to —– people into the theatre only at six -
a) enter
b) admit
c) follow
d) accept
94. I told him to buy things that are lasting (Give the appropriate synonym of the underlined word).
a) ending
b) ordinary
c) durable
d) cheap
95. Give the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word ‘evident’-
a) doubtful
b) unimportant
c) disagreed
d) understood
96. I expressed by disagreement —— him on that issue-
a) between
b) with
c) about
d) for
97. ‘Sugarbowl’ of the world is -
a) India
b) Cuba
c) Brazil
d) USA
98. Palk strait separates-
a) India and Srilanka
b) India and Burma
c) Britain and France
d) Malaysia and Sumatra
99. The minimum number of atoms in a molecule of an element are-
a) 1
b) 5
c) 2
d) 10
100. Tides in the sea are caused by-
a) Effect of sun
b) Effect of moon
c) combined effect of moon and sun
d) Gravitational, centrifugal and centripetal forces
101.The Bar council of India decided to close over law colleges across the country for their failure to maintain minimum teaching standard) There number is
a) 140
b) 200
c) 150
d) 100
102. Aswan Dam is located in-
a) Egypt
b) Libya
c) Sudan
d) Iran
103. Ghana Birds sanctuary is in the state of -
a)Rajasthan
b)Madhya Pradesh
c)Uttar Pradesh
d)Maharashtra
104. Dry ice is-
a) Frozen carbon monoxide
b) Frozen carbon dioxide
c) Frozen ammonia
d) None of these
105. East flower river of India is -
a) Cauvery
b) sone
c) Narmada
d) Tapti
106. The total length of the great wall of China is –
a) 1,400 miles
b) 1,500 miles
c) 1,300 miles
d) 1,400 miles
107. Deficiency of vitamin C may result in-
a) beriberi
b) night blindness
c) dermatitis
d) Scurvy
108. Bharat Shah a film financer was granted bail by Supreme Court after a
period of –
a) 11 months
b) 2 years
c) 18 months
d) 15 months
109. Indian local time is based on-
a) 800 E longitude
b) E longitude
c) 1100 E longitude
d) 250 E longitude
110.Which one is a good preservative of food?
a) Spirit
b) Formaldehyde
c) Sugar
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