Showing posts with label BSNL JTO- Telecom. Show all posts
Showing posts with label BSNL JTO- Telecom. Show all posts

Thursday, April 23, 2009

JTO Telecom-Syllabus

Scheme and Syllabus for the Recruitment of Junior Telecom Officers(Telecom)

EXAMINATION DATE : 21.06.2009

For Direct Recruitment of Junior Telecom Officers, an objective type Examination of 3 hours duration consisting of following sectional papers will be conducted:

SCHEME
A. Engineering Stream Section - I
B. Engineering Stream Section - II
C. General Ability Test Section - III

1. The standard of paper in Engineering subjects will be that of Engineering Degree Examination of an Indian University.
2. In the general ability test, special attention will be paid to assess the candidate’s capacity for general awareness. The standard of paper in general ability test will be such as may be expected of an Engineering Graduate.
3. The syllabus for engineering stream papers will be as given below.

SYLLABUS

SECTION - I

1. Materials and components
Structure and properties of Electronic Engineering materials, Conductors, Semiconductors and Insulators, Magnetic, Ferroelectric, Piezoelectric, Ceramic, Optical and Superconducting materials. Passive components and characteristics, Resistors, Capacitors and Inductors; Ferrites, Quartz crystal, Ceramic resonators, Electromagnetic and Electromechanical components.

2. Physical Electronics, Electron Devices and ICs
Electrons and holes in semiconductors, Carrier Statistics, Mechanics of current flow in a semi-conductor, Hall effect; Junction theory; Different types of diodes and their characteristics; Bipolar Junction transistor; Field effect transistors; Power switching devices like SCRs, CTOs, power MOSFETs; Basics of ICs-bipolar, MOS and CMOS types; Basics of Opto Electronics.

3. Network theory
Network analysis techniques: Network theorem, transcient and steady state sinusoidal response, Transmission criteria: delay and rise time Elmore’s and other definition, effect of cascading. Elements of network synthesis.

4. Electromagnetic Theory
Transmission lines: basic theory, standing waves, matching applications, microstrip lines; Basics of waveguides and resonators; Elements of antenna theory.

5. Electronic Measurements and instrumentation
Basic concepts, standards and error analysis; Measurements of basic electrical quantities and parameters; Electronic measuring instruments and their principles of working: analog and digital, comparison, characteristics, applications. Transducers; Electronic measurements of non-electrical quantities like temperature, pressure, humidity etc. Basics of telemetry for industrial use.

6. Power Electronics
Power Semiconductor devices, Thyristor, Power transistor, MOSFETs, Characteristics and operation. AC to DC convertors; 1-Phase and 3-phase DC to DC Convertors.
AC regulators. Thyristor controlled reactors, switched capacitor networks.
Inverters: Single-phase and 3-phase. Pulse width modulation. Sinusoidal modulation with uniform sampling. Switched mode power supplies.

SECTION-II

1. Analog Electronic Circuits
Transistor biasing and stabilization, Small Signal analysis. Power amplifiers. Frequency response, Wide band techniques, Feedback amplifiers. Tuned amplifiers. Oscillators. Rectifiers and power supplies. Operational Amplifier, other linear integrated circuits and applications. Pulse shaping circuits and waveform generators.

2. Digital Electronic Circuits
Transistor as a switching element; Boolean algebra, simplification of Boolean functions, Karnaugh Map and applications; IC Logic gates and their characteristics; IC logic families: DTL, TTL, ECL, NMOS, PMOS and CMOS gates and their comparison; Combinational logic circuits; Half adder, full adder; Digital Compartor; Multiplexer Demultiplexer; ROM and their applications. Flip-flops, R-S, J-K, D and T flip-flops; Different types of counters and registers; waveform generators. A/D and D/A convertors. Semiconductor memories.

3. Control Systems
Transient and steady state response of control systems; Effect of feedback on stability and sensitivity, Root locus techniques; Frequency response analysis. Concepts of gain and phase margins; Constant-M and Constant-N Nichol’s Chart; Approximation of transient response from Constant-N Nichol’s Chart; Approximation of transient response from closed loop frequency response; Design of Control Systems, Compensators; Industrial controllers.

4. Communication systems
Basic information theory: Modulation and detection in analogue and digital systems; Sampling and data reconstruction. Quantization & Coding; Time division and frequency division multiplexing; Equalisation; Optical Communication: in free space & fibre optic; Propagation of signals at HF, VHF, UHF and microwave frequency; Satellite communication.

5. Microwave Engineering
Microwave Tubes and solid state devices, Microwave generation and amplifiers, Waveguides and other Microwave Components and Circuits, Microstrip circuits, Microwave antennas, Microwave Measurements, MASERS LASERS; Microwave Propogation. Microwave Communication Systems-terrestrial and satellite based.

6. Computer Engineering
Number Systems; Data representation; Programming; Elements of a high level programming language PASCAL/C; use of basic data structures; Fundamentals of computer architecture processor design; Control unit design; Memory organization. I/O System Organization. Personal computers and their typical uses.

7. Microprocessors
Microprocessor architecture - Instruction set and simple assembly language programming. Interfacing for memory and I/O. Applications of Microprocessors in Telecommunications and power system.

SECTION-III

General ability test

The candidate’s comprehension and understanding of General English shall be tested through simple exercises. Questions on knowledge of current events and of such matter of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person. Questions will also be included on events and developments in Telecommunications, History of India and Geography. These will be of a nature, which can be answered without special study by an educated person.

BSNL JTO- Telecom

SECTION-A

Q.1 A house served by a 220V supply light, is protected by a
9-Ampere fuse. The maximum number of 60 W bulbs in parallel
that can be turned on is
(a) 11 (b) 33
(c) 22 (d) 44

Q.2 An n-channel JFET has IDSS = 1 µA & VP =–5V. The maximum
transconductance is
(a) gm = 0.4 milli mho (b) gm = 0.04milli mho
(c) gm = 0.04 mho (d) gm = 0.4 millimilli mho

Q.3 The base to base resistance of a UJT is 6 K Ohm when the emitter
current is zero. If RB1 = 3.6 K Ohm, the intrinsic stand off ratio is
(a) n = 0.66 (b) n = 0.6
(c) n = 6.0 (d) n = 3.6

Q.4 A capacitor of 1µF initially charged to 10 V is connected across
an ideal inductor of 0.1 mH. The maximum current in the circuit is
(a) 0.5 A (b) 1 A
(c) 1.5 A (d) 2 A

Q.5 Silicon has a preference in IC technology because
(a) it is an indirect semiconductor
(b) it is a covalent semiconductor
(c) it is an elemental semiconductor
(d) of the availability of nature oxide SiO

Q.6 Three equal resistance of magnitude 5 Ohm each are connected
in delta. The resistance between any two pair of terminals of the
delta will be
(a) 5 Ohm (b) 5/3 Ohm
(c) 10/3 Ohm (d) 3/5 Ohm

Q.7 The R.M.S. value of a half wave rectified sinusoidal alternating
current with peak value Im is
(a) Im/1 (b) mI / 2
(c) mI /2 (d) mI 3

Q.8 For a series resonant circuit, at the half power points,which of the
following is true?
(a) Current is half of the current at resonance.
(b) Resistance is equal to the reactance.
(c) The impedance is half the impedance at the resonance.
(d) None of the above

Q.9 The lossless line of characterstics impedance 300 Ohm is
terminated in a pure resistance of 200 Ohm. The value of the
standing wave ratio is
(a) 1.5 (b) 0.67
(c) 1.0 (d) 1.25

Q.10 The transient current in lossless L-C circuit when excited from an
AC source is, sine wave
(a) Critically damped (b) Underdamped
(c) Overdamped (d) Undamped

Q.11 The values of L and C for a low pass filter with cut off frequency of
2.5 KHz and operating with a terminated load resistance of 450
Ohm are given by
(a) 57.3 mH; 0.283 µF (b) 28.66 µH; 0.14 µF
(c) 114.64 mH; 0.566 mF (d) 50.23 mH; 0.632 mF

Q.12 The driving point impedance with poles at ? = 0(zero) and ? = 8
(infinity) must have the
(a) s term in the denominator and an excess term in the numerator
(b) s term in the numerator and an excess term in the denominator
(c) s term in the numerator and equal number of terms in the
numerator and denominator
(d) s term in the denominator and equal number of terms in the
numerator and denominator

Q.13 A transmission line is terminated at its characterstic impedance.
The reflection coefficent is
(a) 1 (b) –1
(c) 0 (d) 8

Q.14 In the circuit shown below, the current through the 3/11O
resistance between terminals A & B is
(a) 4 Amps (b) 1 Amp
(c) 2 Amps (d) 5 Amps

Q.15 In a series RLC circuit operating below the resonant frequency
the current
(a) I leads Vs (b) I lags Vs
(c) I is in Phase with Vs (d) None of these

Q.16 An antenna has maximum radiation intensity Umax = 10 Watt/Sr
and average radiation intensity Uavg = 4.5 Watt/Sr. If the efficiency
of the antenna is given as ?r = 95%, the input power of the antenna
is
(a) 2.222 Watt (b) 12.11 Watt
(c) 55.55 Watt (d) 59.52 Watt

Q.17 In an airport, a receiving, antenna has a maximum dimension of 3
metres and operates at 100 MHz. An aircraft approaching the
airport is 1/2 Km away from the antenna . The aircraft is in the
region of the antenna.
(a) far-field (b) near-field
(c) close-field (d) Out of reach

Q.18 A lossless transmission line with characterstic impedance
500 Ohms is excited by a signal of voltage 10?0° volts at 1.2 MHz.
If the line is terminated by ZL at a distance 1 Km, the input
impedance s of the line for ZL = 8 (infinity) and ZL = 0 (zero) in
Ohm, respectively are
(a) +j8, 0 (b) –j8, 0
(c) 0, – j8 (d) 0, +j8

Q.19 If the electric field of a plane wave is represented by E = 10 yˆ
cos (109 t+30z) volt/m, assuming e is the dielectric constant, the
corresponding magnetic field H is
(a) – ˆy e 109/3 cos (109 t + 30z) Amp/m
(b) – ˆx e109/3 cos(109t + 30z) Amp/m
(c) – ˆz e 109/3 cos (109t + 30 z) Amp/m
(d) + ˆx e 109/3 cos (109t+30z) Amp/m

Q.20 A 50 Ohm lossless line connects a signal of 200 KHz to a load of
200 Ohm. If the load power in 100 mW, the value for voltage
minimum Vmin is
(a) ( 20)/4 (b) ( 10)/ 4
(c) ( 20)/ 2 (d) ( 10)/ 2

Q.21 Choose the correct statement
(a) Digital multimeters are built using current measuring elements,
while analog multimeters are built using voltage measuring units
(b) Digital multimeters are built using voltage measuring units,
while analog multimeters are built using current measuring units
(c) Both digital and analog multimeters are built using voltage
measuring units
(d) Both digital and analog multimeters are built using current
measuring units

Q.22 An analog voltmeter has a sensitivity of 10kO/volt. The
galvanometer used in constructing the instrument will produce a
full scale deflection when the current passed through it is
(a) 10 mA (b) 20 mA
(c) 50 mA (d) 100 µA

Q.23 The input versus output characteristics of a digital-to-analog
converter is given in the table below:
The converter is exhibiting
(a) offset error (b) statistical error
(c) linearity error (d) hysteresis error

Q.24 An optical fiber cable laid underground has developed a
discontinuity at a distance d from the source end. The fault can
be located using the instrument
(a) Optical spectrum Analyzer (OSA)
(b) Optical Time Domain Reflectometer (OTDR)
(c) Optical Power Meter (OPM)
(d) Laser Diffractometer (LD)

Q.25 Two sinusoidal signals of the same frequency are displayed on
a dual-trace oscilloscope. One complete cycle of each signal
covers 6 cm of the horizontal scale and the starting point of the
horizontal scale and the starting point of the two signals are
separated by 0.5 cm. The phase difference between the two
signals in degrees is
(a) 30 (b) 45
(c) 60 (d) 90

Q.26 Transient signals can be observed using
(a) storage oscillocope (b) sampling oscilloscope
(c) wave analyzer (d) spectrum analayzer

Q.27 The trace on an oscilloscope continually moves to the right of the
screen when
(a) the sweep is triggered.
(b) the sweep period is larger than the signal period.
(c) the sweep period is smaller than the signal period.
(d) there is no weep.

Q.28 In a dual trace oscilloscope, the display appears segmented when
(a) low frequency signals are observed in Alternate mode
(b) low frequency signals are observed in Chop mode
(c) high frequency signals are observed in Alternate mode
(d) high frequency signals are observed in Chop mode

Q.29 To distinguish between signals having very close values, we need
an instrument with
(a) high accuracy (b) high resolution
(c) high sensitivity (d) high linearity

Q.30 Match List-I (Instruments) with List-II (Measurement in which the
instrument is used) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Lock-in amplifier 1. Patient monitoring
B. Sampling oscillocope 2. Overcoming ground loop
problem
C. Isolation amplifier 3. Phase difference between
two signals
D. Strip-chart recorder 4. Signal recovery from noise
5. Observing very high
frequency signals
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 3 5 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 5 2 1
(d) 3 4 1 2

Q.31 A power diode has lightly doped n type substrate sandwiched
between heavily doped p and n regions
(a) to increase reverse breakdown voltage
(b) to reduce ohmic loss under forward bias
(c) to decrease switching time of the power diode
(d) to improve transient behaviour of the diode

Q.32 An ideal thyristor is driving an R-L load of impedance Z. Input AC
voltage is Vs = Vm sin ?mt. If thyristor is fired at an input phase
angle of 90°. What will be the output voltage and output current
across R-L load at the instant of firing?
(a) Output voltage is Vm and output current is Vm/Z
(b) Output voltage and output current are both zero
(c) Output voltage is zero and output current is delayed by an
angle 90°
(d) Output voltage is Vm and output current is zero

Q.33 In a regenerative braking, which of the following is generally true?
(a) Back e.m.f. in the motor exceeds the applied voltage
(b) Back e.m.f. is less than the applied voltage
(c) Kinetic energy of the motor is dissipated in a resistance
(d) Kinetic energy of the motor is dissipated through free wheeling
diode across the motor

Q.34 A step-down chopper, fed from a 120 volt DC source, operates a
DC motor whose armature e.m.f. and armature resistance are 100
volt and 0.5O respectively. With the magnitude control ratio 0.6,
the quadrant of operation DC motor is
(a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Fourth

Q.35 For IGBT, which of the following statement is true?
(a) Switching speed of IGBT is more than bipolar transistor
(b) IGBT is a current-controlled device
(c) On-state collector-emitter voltage is less than that of bipolar
junction transistor
(d) It combines voltage control features of MOSFET gate and
high power capability of bipolar transistor

Q.36 The semiconductor used for LEDs emitting in the visible range is
(a) GaAs (b) GaAlAs
(c) GalnAs (d) GaAsP

Q.37 The polar bonds existing in III-V compound semicondutor, may
be considered as equivalent to
(a) 1 ionic bond and 3 covalent bonds
(b) 1 ionic bond and 4 covalent bonds
(c) 2 ionic bonds and 2 covalent bonds
(d) 2 ionic bonds and 4 covalent bonds

Q.38 Which of the following pairs of crystal structure possesses the
same atomic packing density?
(a) simple cubic & body centred cubic
(b) body centred cubic & face centred cubic
(c) face centered cubic & hexagonal close packed
(d) body centred cubic & hexagonal close packed

Q.39 The colour bands on a carbon composition resistor occur in the
sequence: yellow, violet, yellow and silver. Its resistance is
(a) 470 KO ± 47 KO (b) 470 KO ± 23.5 %
(c) 47 KO ± 10 % (d) 47 KO ± 5 %

Q.40 The real & imaginary dielectric constants er' and er'' of 3 insulators
at 1 KHz and 50° C are listed below:
Material er' er''
Polycarbonate 2.47 0.003
PET 2.58 0.003
PEEK 2.24 0.003
At a given voltage, the lower power dissipation per unit
capacitance at 1 KHz can be obtained from
(a) Polycarbonate
(b) PET
(c) PEEK
(d) Insufficient information to answer

Q.41 A battery of 40 V and three capacitors of 1000 µF, 500 µF and 100
µF are all connected in (I) parallel and (II) series. The ratio of total
charge stored in case I to that in case II is approximately
(a) 3 : 64 (b) 64 : 3
(c) 160 : 3 (d) 104 : 5

Q.42 The magnetic flux f ( in Weber) linked with a coil at an instant of
time t(in second) is given by f(t) = 2t2 – 20t + 40. The induced
e.m.f. in the coil at the instant t =2 second is
(a) 22 V (b) 20 V
(c) 12 V (d) 10 V

Q.43 The speed of an audio cassette tape in a cassette player is 5cm/
sec. If the maximum frequency that needs to be recorded is 20
KHz, the minimum spatial wavelength on the tape is
(a) 40 µm (b) 25 µm
(c) 4 µm (d) 2.5 µm

Q.44 In a power transformer, the fundamental frequency of the hum
arising due to magnetostriction is
(a) equal to the line frequecy
(b) double the line frequency
(c) 4 times the line frequency
(d) not related to the line frequecny

Q.45 At a particular temperature and current density, the critical
magnetic field for a Type I superconductor is Bc and that for a
type II superconductor ranges from Bc1 to Bc2 keeping other
parameters unloaded. both superconductors are now subjected
to a magnetic field B that satisfies the conditions B>Bc and
Bc1 < q ="4q9," x ="d3" q ="–4q9," x ="dQ4="" q ="–4q9," x ="d3" q ="–4q9," x ="d4" gap =" 1.1" charge =" 1.6" a =" 0.99," ib =" lB" icbo =" 200" ic =" 2.5" ic =" 1.5mA" ic =" 3.5" ic =" 4.5" 1 =" A.Qn" 1 =" A.Qn+" 1 =" A.Qn" 1 =" A.Qn" k =" 0," n =" (no." mp =" 1.15." x =" P.Q" y="P.R" i0 =" X," i1=" 0," i2 =" X," i3 =" X" i0 =" 0," i1="1," i2 =" Y," i3 =" X" i0 =" X," i1 =" 1," i2 =" 0," i3 =" X" i0 =" X," i1 =" 0," i2 =" X," i3 =" Z" k =" 0." dt =" Ax(t)" a ="–2" b ="10" a ="0" b ="0" fc =" 0.16" d =" 0.5456" n =" 31.6"> 100 (b) > 500
(c) > 1000 (d) > 20000

Q.67 In an IF amplifier, the IF transformer is provided with tapping to
(a) increase the voltage gain
(b) increase the bandwidth of the resonance circuit
(c) increse the impedance offered by the resonance circuit to
the following cascaded amplifier
(d) increase the quality factor of the resonance circuit

Q.68 Consider the wave form V(t) = (1+m cos?mt) cos?ct. Show that, if
the demodulated wave is to follow the envelope of V(t), it is required
that at any time t0
(a) RC <=?m(msin?mt0 ) / (1+mcos?m t0) (b) (I/RC) >=
?m(msin?mt0 ) / (1+mcos?m t0 )
(c) 1/RC <=
1/(m?m)
(d) RC is very large

Q.69 QPSK system is superior to BPSK system because
(a) its bandwidth is higher than that of BPSK System
(b) interchannel interference in QPSK system is less then that in
BPSK system
(c) bandwidth of QPSK system is half of the bandwidth of BPSK
system
(d) in QPSK system inter-symbol interference is inproved

Q.70 A radio receiver is placed at one corner of a table and again
placed at some other corner of the same table. Loudspeaker output
is changed because
(a) image interference is reduced
(b) adjacent channel interference is increased
(c) of fading
(d) line of sight propagation is not utilized

Q.71 In time-division multiple access system, a traffic system on the
receiver side must receive the traffic burst addressed to it. For this
(a) transmitting frame acquisition is required
(b) proper synchronization of the timing of transmit frame is required
(c) frame efficiency should be higher
(d) synchronization is necessary to overcome the perturbations
of the satellite

Q.72 Earth coverage dish antenna is used in satellite system. It is
characterized by the fact that
(a) It is a narrow beam antenna
(b) It is Parabolic antenna
(c) it is sharply focused within a small area of the surface of the earth
(d) it is a wide angle antenna which covers a large area of the
surface of the earth

Q.73 In a Klystron amplifier, the RF voltage produces
(a) amplitude modulation (b) frequecny modulation
(c) phase modulation (d) velocity modulation

Q.74 For the proper operation of MASER at a frequency of 10 GHz, the
material used is
(a) Al2 O3 with slight doping of chromium
(b) Ti O2 with slight doping of iron
(c) Ti O2 with slight doping of chromium
(d) Al2 O3 with slight doping of iron

Q.75 A rectangular waveguide is 4.2 cm by 1.85 cm. The cut-off
frequency of the dominant mode through this waveguide is
(a) 3.57 GHz (b) 3.75 GHz
(c) 3.70 MHz (d) 3.57 MHz

Q.76 For an antenna to be frequency-independent, it should expand or
contract in proportion to the
(a) gain (b) directivity
(c) wavelength (d) impedance

Q.77 Suppose that data items, numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 come in
the input stream in this order. By using a queue, which of the
following rearrangement can be obtained in the output order ?
(a) 1 2 6 4 5 3 (b) 2 4 3 6 5 1
(c) 4 2 1 3 5 6 (d) 1 2 3 4 5 6

Q.78 We are told that the integers between 1 and 1000 are arranged in
a binary search trace with ‘<‘ as the ordering relation. Below are
four lists of vertices encountered as we search for the number
363. Which list cannot be produced by this search through a
binary search tree?
(a) 924, 220, 911, 244, 898, 248, 363
(b) 2, 252, 401, 398, 330, 344, 397, 363
(c) 925, 202, 911, 240, 912, 245, 363
(d) 2, 399, 387, 219, 266, 382, 381, 278, 363

Q.79 The number of 1’s in the binary representation of 13* 163 +11*16 + 2 is
(a) 8 (b) 7
(c) 9 (d) 12

Q.80 A disk has 500 bytes/sector,100 sectors / track, 20 heads and
1000 cylinders. Total capacity of disk is
(a) 1 GB (b) 100 MB
(c) 10 MB (d) 10 GB

Q.81 Suppose that the same clock signal is used to increment the
microprogram counter and to load the control register. Which of
the following asseration(s) is/are true?
1. Microinstruction execution time is at least two clock periods.
2. Microinstruction exceution time can be overlapped with
fetching the next microinstruction.
3. Unconditional branch microinstructions must necessarily take
longer than other types.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
Q.82 Some system architects do not find RISC instruction repertoire to
be cost-effective because it
(a) result in large increase in programme size
(b) result in complex structure of microcode
(c) has been observed that an average compiler does not employ
more than a limited subset of available instructions
(d) results in complex decoding of opcode filed resulting in longer
execution time

Q.83 A stake machine pushes operands on a stack and evaluates
binary operators by a pcs (i.e pop/compute/store) where the top
two operands are popped computation is performed and the result
is pushed onto stack. Evaluation of an expression (x* y) + (u* ?)
by Reverse Polish notation in a stack machine needs
(a) 4 push and 3 pcs instructions
(b) 6 push and 1 pcs instructions
(c) 4 push and 1 pcs instructions
(d) 5 push and 2 pcs instructions

Q.84 A dot matrix printer takes 3 msec to point a character, and 1 msec
for a space between two consecutive characters. If it prints 100
characters per line, its printing speed specifications in characters
per second (cps) and time to print a line of characters are
respectively
(a) 100 cps and 400 msec
(b) 2500 cps and 0.04 sec
(c) 250 cps and 40 msec
(d) 250 cps and 0.4 sec

Q.85 Consider the following program segment with 8085 microprocessor
LXI H 3600H
MOV A, M
HLT
The MOV instruction involves
(a) indirect addressing
(b) immediate addressing
(c) implicit addressing
(d) direct addressing

Q.86 To establish a communication between 8085 microprocessor and
8255 Programmable Peripheral Interface chip. the status of the
chip select input would be
(a) TRISTATE (b) HIGH
(b) LOW (d) DON’T CARE

Q.87 Which flag does not change by the execution of the instruction
DCR B in 8085 microprocessor ?
(a) Parity (b) Carry
(c) Zero (d) Sign

Q.88 Let the content of the memory location 3501H be 72H. Now
consider the following program with 8085 microprocessor
LDA 3501H
CMA
STA 3502H
HLT
The content of the memory location 3502H after execution of
programme will be
(a) 27H (b) D8H
(c) 8DH (d) 72H

Q.89 Given the program segment below, how many times will the
instruction LP: JNZ REP be executed?
MVI H, 02H
MVI L, 05H
REP : DCR L
LP : JNZ REP
: DCR H
: JNZ REP
...................
(a) 10 (b) 260
(c) 510 (d) 7

Q.90 What addressing mode is used in the instruction RET?
(a) Direct (b) Immediate
(c) Implicit (d) Register-indirect

Q.91 A one-byte instruction is executed in the 8085 microprocessor
by the following steps:
((SP) –1) ? (PCH)
((SP) –2) ? (PCL)
((SP) ? ((SP)-2)
(PC) ? 0008H
The corresponding instruction is
(a) JMP 0008H (b) PUSH PSW
(c) CALL 0008 H (d) RST 1

Q.92 The zero flag of 8085 microprocessor is to be set keeping the
content of the accumulator unchanged. Which instruction is to
be used?
(a) MOV A,A (b) ANI 00H
(c) XRA A (d) CMP A

Q.93 In class - A power amplifier, the collector dissipation is maximum
when
(a) no signal is present
(b) signal swing is maximum
(c) signal swing is (1/1.414) of its maximum
(d) none of the above

Q.94 If cut-in voltage and forward resistance of each diode (in the
adjoining figure) are 0.7 V and 1 ohm respectively, the current
through the 48 ohm resistor is
8 V
+ 48 O

(a) 132 mA (b) 160 mA
(c) 0 mA (a) (1/6) A

Q.95 The lower cut-off frequency of the transistor stage in the adjoining
figure is
Vcc
3 K
10 µF
V0
2 K
(a) 7.95 Hz (b) 13.25 Hz
(c) 5.30 Hz (d) 3.18 Hz

Q.96 In the adjoining current mirror circuit if Q1 and Q2 are identical
and base currents are not neglected, then which of the following
is true ?
I1 I2
Q1 Q2
(a) I2 = I1 (b) I2 = ßl1
(c) I2 = [(ß/(ß +2)]I1 (d) I2 = [(ß + 2)/ß]I1

Q.97 If rectangular input is applied to the adjoining circuit, it produces
R
C
I/P O/P –
+
(a) square output (b) spike output
(c) sinusoidal output (d) none of the above

Q.98 In an oscillator, if amplifier gain (A) without feedback is (1 + RF/
R1) and gain (ß) of the feedback network is 1/{3 + j(?Rc–1/?Rc)},
then which of the following is true ?
(a) RF = 2R1 (b) RF = R1
(a) |ß| = 3 (b) |ß| = 1/3

Wednesday, April 22, 2009

BSNL JTO- 2005

1. When a piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 800 K then the resistance of -
a) Each of them increases
b) Each of them decreases
c) Copper increases and germanium decreases
d) Copper decreases and germanium increases


2. When a signal of 10 mV at 75 MHz is to be measured then which of the following instrument can be used -
a) VTVM
b) Cathode ray oscilloscope
c) Moving iron voltmeter
d) Digital multimeter

3. When a sample of germanium and silicon having same impurity density are kept at room temperature then –
a) Both will have equal value of resistivity
b) Both will have equal value negative resistivity
c) Resistivity of germanium will be higher than that of silicon
d) Resistivity of silicon will be higher than that of germanium

4. When an RC driving point impedance function has zeros at s= -2 and s=-5 then the admissible poles for the function would be –
a) s = 0; s = -6
b) s = 0; s = -3
c) s = 0; s = -1
d) s = -3; s = -4

5. For the n-type semiconductor with n = Np and p = , the hole concentration will fall below the intrinsic value because some of the holes –
a) drop back to acceptor impurity states
b) drop to donor impurity states
c) Virtually leave the crystal
d) recombine with the electrons

6. The location of lighting arrestor is –
a) Near the transformer
b) Near the circuit breaker
c) Away from the transformer
d) None

7. Time constant of an RC circuit increases if the value of the resistance is –
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Neither a nor b
d) Both a and b

8. Telemetering is a method of –
a) Counting pulses sent over long distances
b) Transmitting pictures from one place to another
c) Transmitting information concerning a process over a distance
d) None

9. When the gauge factor of a strain gauge is 2, stress is 1050 kg/cm2, Y = 2.1´ 106 kg/cm2 and R is 100 ohms then the value of DR will be -
a) 2W
b) 3W
c) 4W
d) 1W

10. As the drain voltage is increased for a junction FET in the pinch off region then the drain current –
a) Becomes zero
b) Abruptly decreases
c) Abruptly increases
d) Remains constant

11. One of the following, which is not a transducer in the true sense, is –
a) Thermocouple
b) Piezoelectric pick up
c) Photo-Voltaic cell
d) LCD

12. When a transistor is required to match a 100W signal source with a high impedance output circuit then the connection that would be used is –

a) Common base
b) Common collector
c) Common emitter
d) Emitter follower

13. In a JFET gates are always –
a) forward biased
b) reverse biased
c) unbiased
d) none

14.The main factor which differentiate a DE MOSFET from an E only MOSFET is the absence of –
a) insulated gate
b) electrons
c) channel
d) P-N junction

15. An SCR conducts appreciable current when –
a) Anode and gate are both negative with respect to cathode
b) Anode and gate are both positive with respect to cathode
c) Anode is negative and gate is positive with respect to cathode
d) Gate is negative and anode is positive with respect to cathode

16. Silicon is not suitable for fabrication of light emitting diodes because it is -
a) An indirect band gap semiconductor
b) A direct band gap semiconductor
c) A wide band gap semiconductor
d) A narrow band gap semiconductor

17. An average responding rectifier type electronic ac voltmeter has its scale calibrated in terms of the rms value of a sine wave, when a square wave voltage of peak magnitude 100V is measured using this voltmeter then the reading indicated by the meter, will be –
a) 111V
b) 100V
c) 90.09V
d) 70.7V

18. When a four terminal T network is inserted between a source and load resistance as shown in figure then the resistance seen by the source remain the same with or without the four terminal block when R is –



a) 5W
b) 10 W
c) 15 W
d) 20 W

19. In the ac bridge shown in the given figure, the value of Rx and Cx at balance will be



20. Which one of the following conditions for Z parameters would hold for a two port network containing linear bilateral passive circuit elements –
a) Z11 = Z22
b) Z12Z21 = Z11Z22
c) Z11Z12 = Z22Z21
d) Z12 = Z21

21. When the transmission parameters of the following network are A = C = 1, B = 2 and D = 3 then the value of Zin is


22. The value of G12 or v2/v1 for the circuit shown in the fig. is -


23. While calculating Rth, constant current sources in the circuit are –
a) replaced by opens
b) replaced by ’shorts’
c) treated in parallel with other voltage sources
d) converted into equivalent voltage sources

24. Maxwell’s loop current method of solving electrical networks –
a) uses branch currents
b) utilizes kirchhoff’s voltage law
c) is confined to single-loop circuits
d) is a network reduction method

25. A transmission line of characteristic impedance Z0 = 50 ohms, phase velocity Vp = 2 x 108 m/s and length l = 1m is terminated by a load ZL= ( 30 – j 40 ) ohms. The input impedance of the line for a frequency of 100 MHz will be
a)(30 + j40 ) ohms
b)( 30 – j40 ) ohms
c)(50 + j40 ) ohms
d)(50 – j40 ) ohms

26. For an elliptically polarized wave incident on the interface of a dielectric at the Brewster angle then the reflected wave will be-
a) Elliptically polarized
b) Linearly polarized
c) Right circularly polarized
d) Left circularly polarized

27. A yagi antenna has a driven antenna-
a) Only
b) With a reflector
c) With one or more directors
d) With a reflector and one or more directors

28. The number of lobes on each side of a 3l resonant antenna is –
a) 3
b) 6
c) 2
d) 1

29. The electric field intensity of a Hertizian dipole at a remote point varies as -
Radiation resistance of a half wave folded dipole is -
a) 72 W
b) 144W
c) 288 W
d) 216W

30. When a carrier wave is modulated at 100% it’s power is increased by -
a)100%
b)150 %
c)50%
d)0%

31. On a clear sky day, the atmospheric radio noise is strongest -
a) During morning hours
b) Around mid-day
c) During nights
d) In the afternoon

32. TV broadcasting system in India is as per CCIR -
a) System B
b) System I
c) System M
d) System X

33. For the safety measurement of the internal resistance of a 25-0-25 mA meter, a laboratory multimeter whose sensitivity is equal to –
a) 1k ohm/volt can be used
b) 10 k ohm/volt can be used
c) 100 k ohm/volt can be used
d) 200 k ohm/volt can be used

34. In order to measure moisture in wood the most suitable method is –
a) Electrical conduction
b) Electrical – capacitive
c) Absorption of radiation
d) Equilirium- moisture vs humidity

35. The flow rate of electrically conducting liquid without any suspended particle cannot be measured by –
a) turbine flow meters
b) electromagnetic flow meters
c) ultrasonic flow meters
d) thermistor based heat loss flow meters

36.The most useful transducer for displacement sensing with excellent sensitivity, linearity and resolution is –
a) an incremental encoder
b) an abosolute encoder
c) LVDT
d) a strain gauge

37. When variable reluctance type tachometer has 150 teeth on the rotor & the counter records 13,500 pulses per second then the rotational speed will be–
a) 4800 rpm
b) 5400 rpm
c) 6000 rpm
d) 7200 rpm.

38. On a voltage scale, zero dB m in a 600-ohm system could refer to –
a) 1.732 V
b) 1.0 V
c) 0.7746 V
d) 0.5V

39. One of the following devices which is required in addition in order to measure pressure using LVDT is-
a) strain gauge
b) pitot tube
c) Bourden tube
d) Rotameter

40. It is required to measure temperature in the range of 13000 C to 15000 c) The most suitable thermocouple to be used as a transducer would be –
a) chromel - constantan
b) Iron - constantan
c) chromel - alumel
d) platinum- rhodium

41. In a CSI if frequency of output voltage is f Hz, then frequency of input voltage to CSI is-
a) f
b) 2 f
c) f/2
d) 3 f

42. Identify the type of chipper in the given circuit

a) Type A chopper
b) Type B chopper
c) Type C chopper
d) Type D chopper


43. Maximum value of charging resistance in an UJT is associated with-
a) peak point
b) valley point
c) any point between peak and valley
d) after the valley point

44. Thyristor A has rated gate current of 2A and thyristor B a rated gate current of 100 mA-
a) A is a GTO and B is a conventional SCR
b) B is a GTO and A is a conventional SCR
c) B may operate as a transistor
d) none of the above

45. In a 3 phase full converter, the output voltage during overlap is equal to-
a) zero
b) source voltage
c) source voltage minus the inductance drop
d) average value of the conducting phase voltages

46. Mark old the correct statement for Cycloconverters-
a) step-down Cycloconverter (CC) works on natural commutation
b) step up CC requires no forced commutation
c) load commutated CC works on line commutation
d) none of the above

47. In a 3 phase full converter if load current is I and ripple free, then average thyristor current is-

48. In the RF amplifier stage cascade (CE-CB) amplifier is used because it gives-
a) Large voltage gain
b) Low output impedance
c) Large isolation between the input and the output
d) None of the above

49. Silicon diode is less suited for low voltage rectifier operation because-
a) it can withstand high temperature
b) ensures low PIV of the diodes
c) ensures lower values of capacitance in the filter
d) reduces ripple content

50. An amplifier of class A is that in which -
a) Base is biased to cut – off
b) Ic flows most of the time
c) Ie flows all the time
d) Vc often raises to Vcc

51. A transistor is in active region when-
a) IB = bIC
b) IC=bIB
c) IC=IE
d) IC=IB

52. For coupling purposes in RF amplifier a buffer amplifier is used because it provides-
a) Maximum loading and minimum mismatch
b) Minimum loading and minimum mismatch
c) Maximum loading and maximum mismatch
d) Minimum loading and maximum mismatch

53. A transistor has CE parameter as hie = 10kW, hre =20 x 10-4 , hse = 100, hoe = 25 ms. The hib for this transistor will be-
a) 100 W
b) 99.01 W
c) 5m W
d) 101kW

54. An FM radio receiver is tuned to a 90.6 MHz broadcast station. It will receive an image frequency of -
a) 110 MHz
b) 112 Hz
c) 114 MHz
d) 120 MHz

55. In the given fig RL is shorted out, then VCE will become-

a) OV
b) VCC – IBRB
c) Equal to VCC
d) None of the above

56. See the circuit shown and choose the correct option –

a) Only red will glow
b) Only green will glow
c) Both red and green will glow
d) Neither red nor green will glow

57. A dc to dc converter having an efficiency of 80% is delivering 16W to a load) If the converter is generating an output of 200V from an input source of 20V, then the current drawn from the source will be –
a) 0.1A
b) 0.5A
c) 1.0A
d) 10.0A

58. A transistor is operated as a non-saturated switch to eliminate –
a) storage time
b) turn – off time
c) turn – on time
d) delay time

59. The output Y of the circuit in the given figure is –

a) (A + B)C + DE
b) AB + C(D + E)
c) (A + B)C + D + E
d) (AB + C) . DE

60. Rotors used in a two-phase ac servomotor is –
a) solid iron motor
b) squirrel cage rotor
c) drag cup rotor
d) both b and c

61. Major advantage of TWT over a klystron lies in its –
a) higher bandwidth
b) higher output
c) higher frequency
d) higher gain

62. The op-map circuit shown in the given figure can be used for –

a) addition
b) subtraction
c) both addition and subtraction
d) multiplication

63. The Boolean expression for the shaded area in the given Venn diagram is –


64. A lag compensator is basically a –
a) high pass filter
b) band pass filter
c) low pass filter
d) band elimination filter

65. Transfer function T (S) of the system in the given fig is-


66. The overall transfer function for a unity feedback system is 4/(S2+4S+4) Mark the correct statement regarding this system
1. Position error constant kp for the system is 4
2. The system type one.
3. The velocity error constant kv for the system is finite.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes
a) 1,2 and 3 b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 3

67. If the rotor’s resistance and reactant’s are respectively R and X1 its length and diameter are L and D for two phase a) c) servomotor, then-
In a PID controllers the transfer function G(s) is-
Transfer function can be approximated by the system- The transfer function of an amplifier is given by The high 3 db frequency of an amplifier will be approximately-
a) 5850 kHz
b) 585 kHz
c) 5850 Hz
d) 585 Hz

68. The output signals amplitudes for 1’s and 0’s in an ADM transmission systems are –

a) Fixed and the repetition rate is also fixed
b) Fixed but the repetition rate is variable
c) Variable and the repetition rate is also variable
d) Variable but the repetition rate is fixed

69. Microwave link repeaters are typically 50km apart –
a) Because of atmospheric attenuation
b) Because of Output tube power limitations
c) Because of the earth’s curvature
d) To ensure that the applied ac voltage is not excessive

70. The amplifier inserted at intervals to amplify the signal and compensate for transmission loss on the cable are called-
a) line amplifier
b) equalizing amplifiers
c) compradors
d) repeaters.

71. Diversity reception in used to-
a) increase receiver sensitivity
b) improve receiver selectivity
c) overcome degrading effect of fading
d) overcome degrading effect of receiver detuning

72. Mark out transferred electron device in the following-
a) BARITT dived
b) IMPATT dived
c) Gunn divde
d) Step recovery diode

73. In the output of a normal monochrome receiver video detector voltages, which are not found, are -
a) syne
b) video
c) sweep
d) sound

74. The HV anode supply for the picture tube of TV receiver is generated in the-
a) mains transformer
b) vertical output stage
c) horizontal output stage
d) horizontal deflection oscillator

75. In antenna measurements using two aperture antennas of dimensions D1 and D2 , minimum separation between the two should be (x is free space wavelength of radiation uses) The frquency range for satellite broad casting is –
Answer: (D12+D22)/x
The frquency range for satellite broad casting is
a) 30 MHz - 300MHz
b) 30 MHz - 3 GHz
c) 3 GHz - 30 GHz
d) 30 GHz - 300 GHz

76. Iris is used to –
a) Over come power loss
b) Over come bending effect
c) Over come mismatch error
d) Over come twist effect

77. In schotty barrier diode current flows because of –
a) Majority carriers
b) Minority carriers
c) Majority and minority carriers
d) None

78. Which antennas are used in microwave communication –
a) long wave antennas
b) Rhombic antennas
c) Parabolaidal antennas
d) All of above

79. Among translator & time of sight system capacity –
a) Of translator is more
b) Of line of sight is more
c) Having equal capacity
d) No relation such as

80. No of T-state required for memory read or write operation-
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6

81. In data transfer operation which flag get affected-
a) 3140 flog.
b) carry flog
c) sign flog.
d) none

82. The storage and retrieval of data on stacks should follow sequence-
a) last in first out
b) first in first out
c) random in random out
d) none

83. While executing program microprocessor checks INTR line clearing-
a) each instruction
b) after interval of two instruction
c) after a subroutine
d) at the end of program.

84. In which error check technique of data communication 2’s complement of all bytes of data is transmitted with data-
a) Even parity
b) odd parity
c) check scans
d) cyclic redundancy

85. Program execution hierarchy decides which operator-
a) is most important
b) is used first
c) is fastest
d) operators on largest number

86. (375)10 = (—-)8
a) 550
b) 557
c) 567
d) 577

87. To obtain 2048 8 memory using 128 8 memory chip how many IC required-
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16

88. A Decimal no. 17 can be converted in binary, the binary no. will be.-
a) 10001
b) 01110
c)00111
d) 11100

89. Is the Universal logic gate-
a) AND
b) OR
c) NAND
d) X-OR

90. A monostable state in multivibrator means-
a) which returns itself to its single stable state
b) the state used only once in circuit
c) the state of circuit can not get changed
d) the state of circuit always changing

91. For designing binary counter which flip flop is preferred -
a) T FF
b) SR FF
c) D FF
d) JKFF

92. His handwriting was not —– so I could not read his note –
a) attractive
b) eligible
c) clear
d) legible

93. They started to —– people into the theatre only at six -
a) enter
b) admit
c) follow
d) accept

94. I told him to buy things that are lasting (Give the appropriate synonym of the underlined word).
a) ending
b) ordinary
c) durable
d) cheap

95. Give the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word ‘evident’-
a) doubtful
b) unimportant
c) disagreed
d) understood

96. I expressed by disagreement —— him on that issue-
a) between
b) with
c) about
d) for

97. ‘Sugarbowl’ of the world is -
a) India
b) Cuba
c) Brazil
d) USA

98. Palk strait separates-
a) India and Srilanka
b) India and Burma
c) Britain and France
d) Malaysia and Sumatra

99. The minimum number of atoms in a molecule of an element are-
a) 1
b) 5
c) 2
d) 10

100. Tides in the sea are caused by-
a) Effect of sun
b) Effect of moon
c) combined effect of moon and sun
d) Gravitational, centrifugal and centripetal forces

101.The Bar council of India decided to close over law colleges across the country for their failure to maintain minimum teaching standard) There number is
a) 140
b) 200
c) 150
d) 100

102. Aswan Dam is located in-
a) Egypt
b) Libya
c) Sudan
d) Iran

103. Ghana Birds sanctuary is in the state of -
a)Rajasthan
b)Madhya Pradesh
c)Uttar Pradesh
d)Maharashtra

104. Dry ice is-
a) Frozen carbon monoxide
b) Frozen carbon dioxide
c) Frozen ammonia
d) None of these

105. East flower river of India is -
a) Cauvery
b) sone
c) Narmada
d) Tapti

106. The total length of the great wall of China is –
a) 1,400 miles
b) 1,500 miles
c) 1,300 miles
d) 1,400 miles

107. Deficiency of vitamin C may result in-
a) beriberi
b) night blindness
c) dermatitis
d) Scurvy

108. Bharat Shah a film financer was granted bail by Supreme Court after a
period of –
a) 11 months
b) 2 years
c) 18 months
d) 15 months

109. Indian local time is based on-
a) 800 E longitude
b) E longitude
c) 1100 E longitude
d) 250 E longitude

110.Which one is a good preservative of food?
a) Spirit
b) Formaldehyde
c) Sugar